A client who has inoperable cancer tells the nurse that she does not want to pursue the recommended treatment. She asks if the provider can force her to have the treatment. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
You have the right to refuse the recommended treatment plan
We will have to tell your provider right away that you are considering this
You have to consider the medical consequences of not treating this cancer
In cases like yours, it is best to talk with your clergyperson before deciding this
The Correct Answer is A
A. You have the right to refuse the recommended treatment plan.
As a nurse, it’s essential to respect the autonomy and decision-making capacity of your patients. Patients have the right to make informed choices about their own healthcare, including whether to accept or decline treatment recommendations. By acknowledging the patient’s right to refuse treatment, you empower them to be active participants in their care.
B. Option b is not the correct answer because it focuses on informing the provider without addressing the client's concerns or providing guidance.
C. Option c is not the correct answer because it emphasizes the medical consequences of not treating the cancer without acknowledging the client's personal beliefs or values.
D. In cases like yours, it is best to talk with your clergyperson before deciding this.
While option D acknowledges the importance of seeking emotional and spiritual support during difficult decisions, it does not directly address the patient’s right to refuse treatment. As a nurse, your primary responsibility is to respect the patient’s autonomy and provide accurate information about their treatment options. Encouraging open communication with a clergyperson or any other trusted individual can be beneficial, but it should not override the patient’s right to make their own decisions regarding their healthcare.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer: (C) The client is not grimacing
Rationale:
A) The client's blood pressure has been reduced:
While morphine can lower blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects, a reduction in blood pressure is not necessarily a primary indicator of a therapeutic response to pain relief. It is more important to assess pain relief directly through the client's subjective experience and behavior rather than focusing on vital signs alone.
B) The client exhibits diaphoresis:
Diaphoresis, or sweating, can occur as a side effect of morphine administration but does not indicate that the medication is effectively relieving pain. In fact, diaphoresis might signal an adverse reaction or discomfort rather than a therapeutic effect.
C) The client is not grimacing:
The absence of grimacing suggests that the client's pain has decreased, which is a direct indicator of a therapeutic response to morphine. Observing a reduction in pain-related behaviors, such as grimacing, is a key assessment for determining the effectiveness of pain management in postoperative clients.
D) The client has an elevated heart rate:
An elevated heart rate may be a sign of unresolved pain or a side effect of morphine but is not a clear indicator of pain relief. Effective pain management with morphine typically results in a decrease in sympathetic nervous system responses, such as a high heart rate, rather than an increase.
Correct Answer is C
No explanation
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