A client who has been taking clozapine reports experiencing a sore throat and has a temperature of 101.9° F (38.8° C). Which action should the nurse take?
Encourage Increase Intake of oral fluids.
Obtain a specimen for a complete blood count.
Complete an Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS).
Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Encouraging an increase in oral fluids is a general intervention but may not address the specific concern related to a sore throat and elevated temperature.
Clozapine requires monitoring for potential agranulocytosis, and an infection should be ruled out with a complete blood count (CBC).
Choice B rationale: Obtaining a specimen for a complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to assess for clozapine-induced agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening side effect. A sore throat and fever are red flags for possible infection.
Choice C rationale: Completing an Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is not relevant to the current situation. A sore throat and fever require immediate attention to rule out infection.
Choice D rationale: Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen may help reduce fever, but the priority is to investigate the potential cause of the symptoms. Obtaining a CBC is essential.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Remaining calm and using a matter-of-fact approach helps provide a sense of security and reduces anxiety in the client during admission.
Choice B rationale: Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills is important but may not be the first action during the initial admission process.
Choice C rationale: Administering a sedative may be considered if the client's anxiety is severe, but understanding and addressing the underlying cause of anxiety is the priority.
Choice D rationale: Asking the client why she is anxious may be appropriate, but the initial focus is on providing a calming and supportive environment during admission.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Gastric lavage may be considered, but the priority is to address respiratory depression. Naloxone administration is more immediate.
Choice B rationale: Renal dialysis is not indicated for the overdose of methadone and benzodiazepines. Addressing respiratory depression is the priority.
Choice C rationale: Nebulizing with albuterol is not the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression due to drug overdose. Naloxone administration is more critical. Choice D rationale: Administration of naloxone is the priority for this client with respiratory depression due to the potential opioid overdose (methadone). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
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