A client sustained a head injury when hit by a lead pipe two hours ago and is admitted for observation after the computerized tomography (CT) scan indicates that no spinal cord injury and no skull fractures are present.

When the client begins projectile vomiting, the nurse quickly turns the client's head to the side and administers ondansetron 4 mg IV as prescribed.

Reassessment indicates that the client's Glasgow coma score is 13 and the left pupil is dilated without reaction to light.

Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Place in lateral Trendelenburg position.

Schedule a repeat CT scan.

Insert a second large bore IV catheter.

Apply artificial tear drops to the left eye.

Repeat Glasgow coma assessment.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,C,E

Choice A rationale

Placing a client with a head injury in the lateral Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to the risk of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). This position can impede venous outflow from the brain, thereby exacerbating cerebral edema and ICP. Additionally, it can compromise the airway and lead to aspiration, especially in a client who is vomiting. Proper positioning, such as elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, is more appropriate to facilitate venous drainage and reduce ICP while protecting the airway. This choice is scientifically unsound and potentially harmful.

Choice B rationale

Scheduling a repeat CT scan is a critical intervention in this case. The client's condition has changed, evidenced by the onset of projectile vomiting and a dilated, non-reactive left pupil, both signs of potential increased ICP and possible brain herniation. A repeat CT scan will help identify any new or worsening intracranial pathology such as bleeding, swelling, or other changes that were not present initially. Timely imaging is essential for appropriate management and to guide further treatment decisions.

Choice C rationale

Inserting a second large bore IV catheter is vital for ensuring rapid access for fluids, medications, and possible blood products in the event of an acute deterioration. This is especially important in a neurologically unstable client. Having multiple IV access points allows for efficient administration of necessary treatments without delay, which can be crucial in managing worsening intracranial conditions and other emergent needs.

Choice D rationale

While applying artificial tear drops to the left eye might seem beneficial for preventing corneal dryness in a client who cannot blink, it does not address the acute neurological concerns indicated by the pupil changes and vomiting. This intervention is more supportive rather than urgent or diagnostic. The primary focus should be on identifying and managing the underlying cause of the client's deterioration, not on symptom management alone.

Choice E rationale

Repeating the Glasgow coma assessment is necessary to monitor any changes in the client's neurological status. Regular assessment helps track the progression or improvement of the client’s condition, guiding clinical decisions. The change in pupil response and vomiting suggests potential worsening, necessitating continuous and frequent reassessments. Prompt detection of deterioration can lead to quicker intervention and potentially better outcomes.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Active labor with moderate contractions indicates that the cervix is dilating and the client is progressing in labor. It signifies that the client is experiencing significant pain and discomfort, making her a candidate for epidural anesthesia for pain relief.

Choice B rationale: Pain reported as 7/10 on a numeric pain scale indicates that the client is experiencing severe pain. Epidural anesthesia is effective in managing severe labor pain and improving the client's comfort during the birthing process.

Choice C rationale: Membranes are intact does not indicate that the client is ready for epidural anesthesia. The status of the membranes does not affect the timing of administering epidural anesthesia.

Choice D rationale: Fetal heart rate is reactive with moderate variability indicates that the fetus is in good condition and tolerating labor well. Epidural anesthesia can be safely administered when fetal monitoring shows reassuring signs.

Choice E rationale: IV line has been initiated is a necessary step for administering epidural anesthesia, but it does not alone indicate that the client is ready for the procedure. Other indicators of labor progression are needed.

Choice F rationale: Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg indicates that the client's blood pressure is within normal limits. While it's important to have stable vital signs before administering an epidural, this alone does not indicate readiness for the procedure.

Choice G rationale: Temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C) is within the normal range and does not affect the timing of administering epidural anesthesia. Temperature monitoring is important, but it is not a primary factor in determining readiness for an epidural.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

TRALI is a life-threatening condition associated with blood transfusion. The client’s symptoms, including trauma and low hemoglobin, indicate the need for transfusion. TRALI can cause acute respiratory distress shortly after transfusion. Early intervention can improve outcomes. Recognizing the signs of TRALI is essential in such scenarios.

Rationale for actions

Administer oxygen: Oxygen supplementation can help manage hypoxemia associated with TRALI. It ensures adequate oxygenation during respiratory distress. Monitor for respiratory distress: Continuous assessment helps detect worsening symptoms. Early detection can prompt timely intervention. Rationale for parameters: Oxygen saturation: Monitoring SpO2 provides real-time information on the patient’s oxygenation status. It helps determine the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Heart rate: Tachycardia can indicate worsening respiratory distress or hypoxemia. Monitoring heart rate is crucial for early detection of complications.

Rationale for incorrect conditions

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO): TACO involves fluid overload, leading to cardiac symptoms. However, this client’s presentation suggests acute lung injury, not fluid overload. Incorrect conditions (others): Abandonment: Not applicable as the client was brought to the hospital and received care. Physical abuse: No evidence of physical abuse in this case. Self-neglect: The client is a child, and the injury was accidental, not due to neglect. The parents brought him to the hospital promptly.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

A client with metastatic bone cancer is requesting pain medication. Which approach should the nurse use to assess the quality of the client's pain?

A mother calls the nurse to report that at 0900 she administered an oral dose of digoxin to her 4-month-old infant, but at 0920 the baby vomited the medicine. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this mother?

The nurse is providing a nutrition class to a group of postmenopausal clients. Which food should the nurse emphasize to this group?

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