A client receives the morning dose of 10 units of insulin aspart at 0800. At what time would the nurse monitor for hypoglycemia?

1200

1000

0900

1100

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason
Monitoring for hypoglycemia at 1200 is not optimal because it is well past the peak action time of insulin aspart, which occurs approximately 45–90 minutes after administration. By noon, the insulin's effects are waning, and the risk of hypoglycemia is lower compared to the peak action period.

Choice B Reason
Monitoring at 1000 might still catch the tail end of the peak action time, but it is not the most likely time for hypoglycemia to occur. The nurse could miss the initial signs of hypoglycemia if monitoring starts two hours after administration.

Choice C Reason
0900 is the most appropriate time for the nurse to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin aspart has a rapid onset of action, peaking in about 45–90 minutes, and the effects last for 3–5 hours. Monitoring one hour after administration aligns with the start of the peak action time, when hypoglycemia is most likely to occur.

Choice D Reason
Monitoring at 1100 is less ideal because it is nearing the end of the peak action period. While there is still a risk for hypoglycemia, the highest risk would have been earlier, closer to the peak action time.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Obesity is a significant risk factor for gout. It can lead to increased production and decreased excretion of uric acid, which in turn can cause gout attacks. The normal body mass index (BMI) range is 18.5 to 24.9, and a BMI of 30 or above is considered obese.

Choice B reason:
Regular consumption of beer can increase the risk of gout. Beer is high in purines, which the body breaks down into uric acid, and alcohol can reduce the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. Moderation in alcohol consumption is advised, with the recommendation being up to one drink per day for women and up to two drinks per day for men.

Choice C reason:
Thiazide diuretics are associated with an increased risk of gout. They can decrease the kidney's ability to remove uric acid from the body, leading to its accumulation. When prescribing thiazide diuretics, healthcare providers often monitor uric acid levels and consider alternative medications if the patient has a history of gout.

Choice D reason:
Depression is not directly identified as a risk factor for developing gout. However, some lifestyle factors associated with depression, such as poor diet and inactivity, could indirectly increase the risk.

Choice E reason:
Hypertension is a known risk factor for gout. High blood pressure can impair kidney function, which is responsible for excreting uric acid, thus leading to hyperuricemia and gout. The normal range for blood pressure is considered to be below 120/80 mmHg.

A. a negative sputum culture. B. decreased hemoptysis. C. an improved chest x-ray. D. a decreased rate of coughing.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason
A negative sputum culture is the most definitive indicator of the effectiveness of tuberculosis (TB) treatment. When a patient with active TB starts on medication, the goal is to eliminate the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria from the body. A sputum culture that turns from positive to negative signifies that the bacteria have been eradicated from the respiratory secretions, indicating successful treatment.

Choice B Reason
While decreased hemoptysis (coughing up blood) is a positive sign and indicates an improvement in the patient's condition, it is not the most reliable parameter for determining the effectiveness of TB therapy. Hemoptysis may decrease as the patient's overall condition improves, but it does not confirm the eradication of the TB bacteria.

Choice C Reason
An improved chest x-ray can show a reduction in the lesions caused by TB, which is a good sign of recovery. However, chest x-rays cannot confirm whether the TB bacteria have been completely eliminated. They are more of a supportive indicator rather than a definitive one.

Choice D Reason
A decreased rate of coughing is another sign that the patient is responding to treatment, as coughing is a primary symptom of TB. However, similar to hemoptysis and chest x-ray improvements, a decrease in coughing does not necessarily mean that the TB bacteria have been fully cleared from the body.

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A client receives the morning dose of 10 units of insulin aspart at 0800. At what time would the nurse monitor for hypoglycemia?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is discussing gout with a client who is concerned about developing the disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for this disease? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]

Explanation

A client is diagnosed with active tuberculosis and is started on medications. The nurse is aware that which parameter best indicates that the prescribed therapy has been effective? The client has:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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