A client presents to the emergency room reporting sudden, sharp pain on the right side of the chest and shortness of breath. The right side of the chest is not moving with inspiration. The client's trachea is deviated towards the left: there is absence tactile fremitus on the right side of the chest. Upon percussion, the nurse hears hyperresonant sound on the right side of the thorax. Upon auscultation, no breath sounds are heard on the right. Which disorder would the nurse suspect?
Asthma.
Pneumothorax.
Atelectasis.
Pneumonia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Asthma - Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by bronchoconstriction, inflammation, and increased mucus production. It does not typically present with absent breath sounds, deviation of the trachea, or hyperresonant percussion sounds. Wheezing is a common finding in asthma.
Choice B rationale:
Pneumothorax - This is the correct choice. The scenario describes classic signs of a tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency. The tracheal deviation, absence of breath sounds, and hyperresonant percussion note on the affected side are indicative of air accumulation in the pleural space, leading to lung collapse and displacement of mediastinal structures.
Choice C rationale:
Atelectasis - Atelectasis refers to the collapse or incomplete expansion of a lung or part of a lung. It can lead to decreased breath sounds on auscultation but does not usually cause tracheal deviation or hyperresonance on percussion. It is not the best fit for the described signs.
Choice D rationale:
Pneumonia - Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue that can cause symptoms like fever, cough, and productive sputum. Breath sounds may be diminished over the affected area due to consolidation, but the absence of breath sounds, tracheal deviation, and hyperresonance point more strongly toward a pneumothorax in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest.
Choice A rationale:
Petechiae on the chest (Choice A) are tiny red or purple spots that appear on the skin due to small blood vessel breakage. They are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Petechiae are more often related to conditions like thrombocytopenia or certain infections, where blood clotting is impaired.
Choice B rationale:
Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest, often referred to as "barrel chest," is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. This occurs due to the hyperinflation of the lungs and the loss of elasticity in the lung tissues, which causes the chest to become rounded and the ribs to be positioned more horizontally.
Choice C rationale:
An oxygen saturation level of 96% (Choice C) is within the normal range for oxygen saturation. However, while it's important for clients with COPD to maintain adequate oxygen levels, this value doesn't specifically correlate with the client's symptoms of a wet cough and occasional shortness of breath.
Choice D rationale:
Respiratory alkalosis (Choice D) involves an increase in blood pH due to decreased levels of carbon dioxide (hypocapnia) caused by hyperventilation. While respiratory alkalosis can occur in clients with COPD due to compensatory hyperventilation, it is not a direct assessment finding related to the client's symptoms of a wet cough and occasional shortness of breath.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should avoid assessing the popliteal pulse bilaterally at the same time. The popliteal pulse is located behind the knee and is relatively deep. Applying pressure on both sides of the knee to assess this pulse simultaneously can obstruct blood flow to the lower extremities. This is a particularly important consideration for clients with compromised circulation, such as those with peripheral vascular disease. Assessing this pulse sequentially is a safer approach.
Choice A rationale:
Assessing the femoral pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The femoral pulse is located in the groin area, and assessing it bilaterally doesn't impede blood flow significantly.
Choice C rationale:
Assessing the brachial pulse bilaterally at the same time is generally acceptable. The brachial pulse is located in the upper arm, and simultaneous assessment is unlikely to cause circulatory compromise.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing the carotid pulse bilaterally at the same time is discouraged. The carotid arteries are located in the neck, and applying bilateral pressure here can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, potentially causing syncope (fainting) or other adverse effects. It's safer to assess this pulse sequentially.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.