A client is seen in a primary care provider's office. The client has gradually developed a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and a lack of facial expressions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed to treat these symptoms?

Edrophonium

Prednisone

Carbidopa-levodopa

Riluzole

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Edrophonium is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness. It is not used to treat the symptoms described in the question.
B.   Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to treat various conditions, including autoimmune diseases and allergies. It is not used to treat Parkinson's disease, which is the most likely diagnosis based on the symptoms described.
C.   This medication is the gold standard for treating Parkinson's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder that causes tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slowed movements), and postural instability. Carbidopa- levodopa helps to increase dopamine levels in the brain, which can improve motor function and reduce symptoms.
D.   Riluzole is used to treat amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), a neurodegenerative disease that affects motor neurons. It is not used to treat Parkinson's disease.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Laparoscopic splenectomy involves the surgical removal of the spleen. The spleen is an organ where platelets are often destroyed in ITP. Removing the spleen can reduce the destruction of platelets and potentially improve platelet counts. This procedure is considered when medical therapy fails to adequately control the condition and is often effective in increasing platelet counts for many patients with chronic ITP.
B. Transfusion of platelets is generally not effective in ITP because the underlying problem is that the platelets are being destroyed by the immune system. Platelet transfusions may provide a temporary increase in platelet count but do not address the underlying cause of platelet destruction.
C. ADAMTS-13 is a von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), not ITP. Replacement of ADAMTS-13 is relevant for treating TTP, a different condition that also involves thrombocytopenia but has a different pathophysiology.
D. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant. It is not used to treat ITP and does not affect platelet destruction or platelet count. This procedure is not relevant to the management of ITP.

A. The bleeding occurs from peptic ulcers in the stomach. B. This type of bleeding is treated by giving chewable aspirin. C. The bleeding occurs from tears in the lining of the duodenum. D. The bleeding occurs from a tear in the mucosal lining where the esophagus meets the stomach.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

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A client is seen in a primary care provider's office. The client has gradually developed a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and a lack of facial expressions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed to treat these symptoms?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Despite medication therapy, the client's platelet count remains low. Which of the following procedures would reduce the destruction of platelets for a client who has ITP?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The patient is admitted with upper GI bleeding following an episode of forceful vomiting due to excessive alcohol intake. The nurse suspects a Mallory-Weiss tear. Which of the following is true of a Mallory-Weiss tear?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A client is seen in a primary care provider's office. The client has gradually developed a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and a lack of facial expressions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed to treat these symptoms?

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