A client is receiving IV fluids at 150 mL/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
Oliguria
Bradycardia
Dyspnea
Poor skin turgor
The Correct Answer is C
- A. Oliguria. This is incorrect because oliguria, or decreased urine output, is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not fluid volume overload.
- B. Bradycardia. This is incorrect because bradycardia, or slow heart rate, is not a typical sign of fluid volume overload, unless the client has a cardiac condition that affects the heart's response to fluid overload.
- C. Dyspnea. This is correct because dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid volume overload, as excess fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange.
- D. Poor skin turgor. This is incorrect because poor skin turgor, or decreased elasticity of the skin, is a sign of dehydration, not fluid volume overload.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Implement fall precautions for the client.
- A. Implement fall precautions for the client. This is correct because risperidone can cause orthostatic hypotension, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly, avoid alcohol and dehydration, and use assistive devices as needed.
- B. Monitor the client's thyroid function. This is incorrect because risperidone does not affect thyroid function. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function if they are taking lithium, which can cause hypothyroidism.
- C. Place the client on a fluid restriction. This is incorrect because risperidone does not cause fluid retention or overload. The nurse should encourage adequate fluid intake and monitor the client's fluid balance.
- D. Discontinue the medication if hallucinations occur. This is incorrect because hallucinations are a symptom of schizophrenia, not a side effect of risperidone. The nurse should not discontinue the medication abruptly, as this can cause withdrawal symptoms and relapse of psychosis. The nurse should assess the client's response to the medication, report any adverse effects, and adjust the dosage as prescribed.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature does not drop 1 degree 1 week after ovulation. The body temperature rises slightly (about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Fahrenheit) after ovulation and remains elevated until the next menstrual period.
- B. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature should be taken each morning before getting out of bed or doing any activity. Taking the temperature in the evening can result in inaccurate readings due to variations in daily activities, meals, stress, exercise, etc.
- C. This choice is correct because the body temperature might decrease slightly (about 0.2 degrees Fahrenheit) just prior to ovulation due to a surge in estrogen levels. This dip in temperature can indicate that ovulation is about to occur and that the client should avoid unprotected intercourse if she wants to prevent pregnancy.
- D. This choice is incorrect because the body temperature is not at its highest during menstruation. The body temperature drops at the onset of menstruation due to a decline in progesterone levels and marks the beginning of a new cycle.
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