A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol), 50 mg bid: benztropine (Cogentin), 1 mg prn: and zolpidem (Ambien). 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?
Tactile hallucinations
Reports of hearing disturbing voices
Hypotension
Restlessness and muticle rigidity
The Correct Answer is D
A. Tactile hallucinations: Benztropine is not typically indicated for the treatment of tactile hallucinations. It is primarily used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotic medications.
B. Reports of hearing disturbing voices: Benztropine is not the first-line treatment for auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia. Antipsychotic medications, such as haloperidol, are more commonly used for this purpose.
C. Hypotension: Benztropine is not used to treat hypotension. It is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as rigidity and restlessness, that may result from antipsychotic medication use.
D. Restlessness and muticle rigidity: This is the correct answer. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication that can help alleviate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) caused by antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol. Restlessness and muticle rigidity are symptoms of EPS, and benztropine can be used to counteract these side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "This therapy will increase the client's motivation to gain weight": Behavior modification focuses on changing specific behaviors through reinforcement or consequences. While motivation may be a component, the primary goal of behavior modification is to address and modify specific behaviors, such as eating habits, rather than solely relying on motivation.
B. "This therapy will provide the client with control over behavioral choices": Anorexia nervosa often involves issues of control, and behavior modification can empower the individual to regain control over their eating behaviors in a structured and supportive manner. It involves setting goals, reinforcing positive behaviors, and providing a sense of control within the therapeutic framework.
C. "This therapy will reward the client for perfectionist achievement": While anorexia nervosa is associated with perfectionism, rewarding for perfectionist achievement may inadvertently reinforce unhealthy behaviors. Behavior modification aims to promote positive behaviors related to health and well-being rather than reinforcing perfectionism.
D. "This therapy will protect the client from parental overindulgence": Behavior modification is not primarily focused on protecting the client from external factors like parental overindulgence. Instead, it aims to modify specific behaviors through positive reinforcement or consequences.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Falling asleep in the chair and refusing to eat lunch is not indicative of tardive dyskinesia (TD). TD is characterized by involuntary movements, not by changes in sleep patterns or appetite.
B. Correct. Grimacing and lip smacking are characteristic movements associated with tardive dyskinesia. TD is a side effect of long-term use of typical antipsychotic medications, and it involves involuntary, repetitive movements, often involving the face and mouth.
C. Incorrect. Excessive salivation and drooling are not specific to tardive dyskinesia. These symptoms may occur due to various reasons, and TD is primarily associated with abnormal, involuntary movements.
D. Incorrect. Experiencing muscle rigidity and tremors is more characteristic of other side effects or conditions, such as extrapyramidal symptoms, but it is not specific to tardive dyskinesia. TD typically involves repetitive, involuntary movements rather than tremors.

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