A client has begun a long-term maintenance therapy with lithium, which has a narrow therapeutic index. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

Dependence.

Interaction.

Toxicity.

Tolerance.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Dependence is not a primary concern with lithium, a mood stabilizer. Toxicity is critical due to lithium’s narrow therapeutic range, risking severe complications. Dependence is more relevant to other drugs, per psychopharmacology and lithium therapy education standards in nursing.

Choice B reason: Interactions are important but less urgent than toxicity, which can be life-threatening with lithium’s narrow therapeutic index. Toxicity education emphasizes monitoring blood levels to prevent harm, per psychopharmacology and patient safety protocols in lithium therapy teaching.

Choice C reason: Toxicity is the most critical adverse effect to teach, as lithium’s narrow therapeutic index risks severe complications like seizures or renal failure. Monitoring symptoms and blood levels ensures safety, per evidence-based psychopharmacology and patient education protocols for lithium therapy in nursing.

Choice D reason: Tolerance is not a significant issue with lithium, unlike toxicity, which is life-threatening due to its narrow therapeutic range. Teaching toxicity symptoms prioritizes patient safety, per lithium therapy management and psychopharmacological education standards in nursing practice.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering an IV narcotic masks pain without addressing its cause. Pain at the PCI site may indicate hematoma or arterial injury, common post-PCI due to vessel trauma and tirofiban’s antiplatelet effects. Assessing the site identifies bleeding, critical to prevent complications like hemorrhage before providing analgesia.

Choice B reason: Adjusting the compression device without assessment risks worsening a hematoma, as excessive pressure impairs flow, while insufficient pressure fails to control bleeding. Tirofiban increases bleeding risk. Assessing for hematoma ensures proper management, preventing vascular complications, making adjustment premature without confirming the pain’s cause.

Choice C reason: Turning to a left side-lying position does not address PCI site pain, potentially from hematoma or arterial injury. Post-PCI, supine positioning minimizes site stress. Assessing for hematoma, exacerbated by tirofiban’s anticoagulation, is critical to detect bleeding, preventing complications like retroperitoneal hemorrhage over positional changes.

Choice D reason: Assessing the femoral PCI site for hematoma is essential, as pain may indicate bleeding, common post-PCI with tirofiban’s platelet inhibition. Hematoma can compress vessels, causing ischemia or rupture, requiring urgent intervention like compression or surgery. This addresses the pathophysiological risk, ensuring vascular stability and patient safety.

A. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dL (10.55 mmol/L) today and had 160 mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L) yesterday. B. A client with a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL (4.34 mmol/L). C. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 500/mm3 today and had 2,000/mm3 yesterday. D. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Elevated glucose (190 mg/dL) in pancreatitis needs monitoring but is less urgent than severe neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks life-threatening infections. Glucose can be managed with insulin, per diabetes and pancreatitis care protocols, but neutropenia requires immediate intervention.

Choice B reason: Hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL in a GI bleed is critical but less immediate, as the client is receiving a transfusion. Neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3) poses an urgent infection risk, requiring isolation. Transfusion addresses anemia, per bleeding and hematology care standards.

Choice C reason: An ANC <500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, posing an immediate infection risk in cancer patients, requiring urgent isolation and antibiotics. This rapid drop from 2,000/mm3 demands priority intervention to prevent sepsis, per oncology and infection control protocols in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Elevated bilirubin in hepatitis is concerning but less urgent than neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks sepsis. Jaundice requires monitoring and treatment, but severe infection risk takes precedence, per liver disease and critical care prioritization standards in nursing practice.

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A client has begun a long-term maintenance therapy with lithium, which has a narrow therapeutic index. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse? Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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