A client has a new prescription for zolpidem, a hypnotic. The client tells the home health nurse that he plans to take a dose of the medication during the day because he is exhausted and needs to take a short afternoon nap prior to an evening activity in his home. Which action should the nurse take?

Encourage the client to wait until bedtime to take the medication.

Remind the client to drink plenty of fluids when taking the medication.

Advise the client to take the medication with the noon meal.

Explain that the client needs to allow for sleep time of at least two hours.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Zolpidem is a hypnotic drug that induces sleep by enhancing the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity. Zolpidem is used to treat insomnia, or difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Zolpidem should be taken only at bedtime, when the client is ready to go to sleep and can devote at least seven to eight hours for uninterrupted sleep. Taking zolpidem during the day can cause excessive sedation, drowsiness, confusion, memory loss, and impaired coordination. Therefore, the nurse should encourage the client to wait until bedtime to take the medication and avoid daytime naps.

Choice B reason: Reminding the client to drink plenty of fluids when taking the medication is not an action that the nurse should take in this situation, but rather a general recommendation that applies to most medications. Drinking fluids can help to prevent dehydration, flush out toxins, and maintain kidney function. However, drinking fluids is not specific to zolpidem and does not affect its absorption or metabolism.

Choice C reason: Advising the client to take the medication with the noon meal is not an action that the nurse should take in this situation, but rather a harmful suggestion that can reduce the effectiveness of zolpidem and increase its side effects. Taking zolpidem with food can delay its onset of action and make it less potent. Taking zolpidem at noon can also interfere with the client's circadian rhythm, or natural sleep-wake cycle, and cause daytime sleepiness and nighttime insomnia.

Choice D reason: Explaining that the client needs to allow for sleep time of at least two hours is not an action that the nurse should take in this situation, but rather an inaccurate and insufficient information that can mislead the client and endanger their safety. Zolpidem has a half-life of about two hours, which means that half of its dose is eliminated from the body in two hours. However, this does not mean that its effects wear off in two hours. Zolpidem can still cause residual sedation and impairment for several hours after taking it. The client needs to allow for sleep time of at least seven to eight hours when taking zolpidem, not just two hours.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Assessing for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose is not necessary, as labetalol does not cause orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where the blood pressure drops significantly when changing positions from lying to sitting or standing. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure by reducing the heart rate and cardiac output.

Choice B reason: Administering the dose and monitoring the client's B/P regularly is not appropriate, as labetalol may cause further bradycardia (slow heart rate) in this client. The client's heart rate is already below normal (48 beats/minute), which may indicate that labetalol is overdosed or contraindicated. Bradycardia can lead to decreased perfusion, dizziness, fatigue, and fainting.

Choice C reason: Applying a telemetry monitor before administering the dose is not sufficient, as labetalol may cause serious cardiac arrhythmias (irregular heart rhythms) in this client. The client's heart rate is already below normal (48 beats/minute), which may indicate that labetalol is affecting the electrical conduction system of the heart. Arrhythmias can cause palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and cardiac arrest.

Choice D reason: Withholding the scheduled dose and notifying the healthcare provider is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. The client's heart rate is already below normal (48 beats/minute), which may indicate that labetalol is causing adverse effects or interactions with other medications. The healthcare provider should be informed of the client's vital signs and medication history, and decide whether to adjust or discontinue labetalol.

A. Monitor for signs of sodium and fluid retention. B. Wound and blood specimens for culture and sensitivity. C. Complete blood count and serum electrolytes. D. Irrigation and topical antibiotic application to wound area.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Monitoring for signs of sodium and fluid retention is not relevant to this situation, as broad spectrum antibiotics do not affect sodium or fluid balance. Sodium and fluid retention may be caused by other conditions such as heart failure, kidney disease, or liver disease.

Choice B reason: Obtaining wound and blood specimens for culture and sensitivity is most important before administering the first dose of a broad spectrum antibiotic, as this can help identify the specific type and strain of bacteria causing the infection and determine which antibiotic is most effective against it. Broad spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria, but they may also kill beneficial bacteria and increase the risk of resistance or superinfection.

Choice C reason: Obtaining a complete blood count and serum electrolytes is not necessary before administering the first dose of a broad spectrum antibiotic, as these tests do not provide information about the type or severity of infection. A complete blood count may show an elevated white blood cell count or other changes in response to infection, but it does not identify the causative organism. Serum electrolytes may show abnormalities due to dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, or other factors, but they do not indicate infection.

Choice D reason: Performing irrigation and topical antibiotic application to wound area is not sufficient before administering the first dose of a broad spectrum antibiotic, as this may not reach all sites of infection or eradicate all bacteria. Irrigation and topical antibiotic application may help clean and prevent further contamination of wound area, but they do not replace systemic antibiotic therapy.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99°F (37.22°C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

On admission, the healthcare provider prescribes a broad spectrum antibiotic for a client with a gram-negative infection. Before administering the first dose, it is most important for the nurse to implement which prescription?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic tetracycline HCl for an adult client that arrived at an outpatient clinic. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

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The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?

A female client who is a vegetarian has a new prescription for warfarin. The client states she eats leafy green vegetables every day. How should the nurse respond?

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