A client has a history of gastric bypass surgery within the past year. She presents to her primary care office for a check-up and states she has been troubled by several seemingly unrelated ailments: a sore tongue, tingling in her fingers, and “almost” falling several times due to lack of balance. The nurse notes that she is pale and slightly tachycardic.
Which type of anemia does the nurse suspect?

Folic acid deficiency anemia.

Aplastic anemia.

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia.

Acquired anemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This type of anemia is caused by the reduced absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine after gastric bypass surgery. Vitamin B12 is needed for the production of healthy red blood cells and nerve function. The symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia include sore tongue, tingling in the fingers, and balance problems.

Choice A is wrong because folic acid deficiency anemia is caused by the lack of folic acid in the diet or increased demand for folic acid, such as during pregnancy.

Folic acid is also needed for red blood cell production, but it does not cause nerve symptoms.

Choice B is wrong because aplastic anemia is caused by the failure of the bone marrow to produce enough blood cells.

It is not related to gastric bypass surgery or nutrient deficiency. It can be caused by infections, drugs, radiation, or autoimmune diseases.

Choice D is wrong because acquired anemia is a general term for any type of anemia that is not inherited or present at birth.

It can have many causes, such as blood loss, infection, inflammation, or chronic disease.

It does not specify the type of anemia or the underlying mechanism. Normal ranges for hemoglobin are 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL for men and 12 to 15.5 g/dL for women. Normal ranges for vitamin B12 are 200 to 900 pg/mL.

Nursing Test Bank

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. Cataracts are a cloudy, opaque area over the lens of one eye that can impair vision

Choice B is wrong because diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the blood vessels of the retina, not the lens. It can cause blurred vision, floaters, or vision loss

Choice C is wrong because glaucoma is a condition that damages the optic nerve due to high pressure in the eye. It can cause blind spots, halos around lights, or vision loss

Choice D is wrong because macular degeneration is a condition that damages the macula, the central part of the retina. It can cause blurred or no vision in the center of the visual field

: https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/cataracts/

: https://www.nei.nih.gov/learn-about-eye-health/eye-conditions-and diseases/diabetic-retinopathy

: https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/glaucoma/symptoms causes/syc-20372839

: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Macular_degeneration

A. A client who has a family history of breast cancer is scheduled for a mammogram. B. A client who has heart failure is scheduled for an echocardiogram. C. A client who is asymptomatic is not scheduled for a series of tests. D. A client is scheduled to receive an influenza vaccination.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is an example of secondary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complications. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.

A client who has a family history of breast cancer and is scheduled for a mammogram is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention is early detection of a disease before it progresses. Secondary prevention can include screenings and other forms of diagnostic tests.

This is an example of tertiary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complication. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.

Choice C is wrong because it is not an example of any level of prevention.

A client who is asymptomatic is not scheduled for a series of tests because there is no indication of any disease or risk factor.

Choice D is wrong because it is an example of primary prevention, which is the action taken to prevent the development of disease.

A client who is scheduled to receive an influenza vaccination is protected from getting infected by the virus and developing flu-related complications.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has a cloudy, opaque area over the lens of one eye. The nurse should identify that this is a manifestation of which of the following visual impairments?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A charge nurse is providing an in-service to a group of nurses on the different levels of illness prevention. The nurse should include which of the following as an example of secondary prevention?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The RN identifies that a client is at risk for impaired skin integrity. Which interventions should the nurse add to this client’s plan of care?

Your patient was outdoors and developed hypothermia. You know that independent nursing interventions would include:

A home health nurse visits a client who has COPD and receives oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

The nurse educator is presenting information to a group of nursing students regarding uninsured and underinsured clients. The nurse educator emphasizes that a lack of insurance or lack of sufficient insurance is:

The nurse graduate is reviewing his scope of practice. Which of the following does he correctly identify as outlining the legal scope of practice for nursing?

The nurse is performing a cultural assessment with a client; the nurse should include which of the following? (Select All That Apply).

Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse be LEAST likely to choose for a patient with appendicitis?