A client diagnosed with schizophrenia, who has been taking antipsychotic medication for the last 5 months, presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications
Agranulocytosis treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril)
Tardive dyskinesia treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medication
Headache treated by administration of Hydrochlorothiazide
The Correct Answer is C
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications: The symptoms described (uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, difficulty swallowing) are more indicative of tardive dyskinesia than neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity. Treatment involves discontinuing antipsychotic medications and supportive care.
B. Agranulocytosis treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril): Agranulocytosis is a rare but serious side effect of clozapine, not a treatment for the symptoms described. The symptoms presented are more consistent with tardive dyskinesia.
C. Tardive dyskinesia treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medication: This is the correct answer. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary and abnormal movements, including tongue protrusion and facial grimacing. It can result from long-term use of antipsychotic medications, and discontinuing or reducing the dose of the antipsychotic is a primary intervention.
D. Headache treated by administration of Hydrochlorothiazide: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not headache or the symptoms described, which are more indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Histrionic Personality Disorder:
Individuals with histrionic personality disorder typically seek attention and may be overly dramatic, but self-harm as a response to perceived abandonment is not a characteristic feature.
B. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD):
People with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are characterized by perfectionism, preoccupation with details, and a desire for control. Michelle's behavior, including self-harm in response to perceived rejection, aligns more closely with borderline personality disorder.
C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder:
While narcissistic individuals may exhibit a sense of superiority and a desire for admiration, self-harm in response to abandonment is not a typical trait of narcissistic personality disorder.
D. Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD):
This personality disorder is characterized by unstable relationships, self-image, and emotions. Individuals with BPD may have intense fears of abandonment and engage in impulsive and self-destructive behaviors. Michelle's perception of being disliked, her claim of superiority, and the self-harming action in response to news of the nurse's vacation are consistent with BPD.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Use clear, calm statements and a confident physical stance:
This is the most appropriate choice. Clear and calm communication, along with a confident physical stance, can help to de-escalate the situation. It demonstrates assertiveness and can potentially prevent further escalation of violence.
B. Provide objective evidence that violence is unwarranted:
While providing objective evidence may be helpful in some situations, individuals with paranoid personality disorder may not respond well to attempts to prove that their perceptions are unwarranted. It could potentially escalate the situation.
C. Empathize with the client's paranoid perceptions:
While empathy is important in communication, empathizing with paranoid perceptions in a way that validates or reinforces them may not be the best approach. It could inadvertently validate the client's distorted thoughts and potentially escalate the situation.
D. Initially restrain the client to maintain safety:
Physical restraint should be a last resort and used only when the safety of the client or others is at immediate risk. Initial restraint can escalate aggression and may not be the most appropriate intervention in the early stages of a violent episode.
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