A client diagnosed with schizophrenia, who has been taking antipsychotic medication for the last 5 months, presents in an emergency department (ED) with uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, and difficulty swallowing. The nurse would expect the physician to recognize which condition and implement which treatment?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications
Agranulocytosis treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril)
Tardive dyskinesia treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medication
Headache treated by administration of Hydrochlorothiazide
The Correct Answer is C
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome, treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medications: The symptoms described (uncontrollable tongue movements, stiff neck, difficulty swallowing) are more indicative of tardive dyskinesia than neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity. Treatment involves discontinuing antipsychotic medications and supportive care.
B. Agranulocytosis treated by administration of clozapine (Clozaril): Agranulocytosis is a rare but serious side effect of clozapine, not a treatment for the symptoms described. The symptoms presented are more consistent with tardive dyskinesia.
C. Tardive dyskinesia treated by discontinuing antipsychotic medication: This is the correct answer. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary and abnormal movements, including tongue protrusion and facial grimacing. It can result from long-term use of antipsychotic medications, and discontinuing or reducing the dose of the antipsychotic is a primary intervention.
D. Headache treated by administration of Hydrochlorothiazide: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not headache or the symptoms described, which are more indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. Using the proportion, the correct dose of fluoxetine (Prozac) for the prescribed 60 mg is 15 mL.
B. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 20 mL.
C. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 25 mL.
D. Incorrect. This is not the correct dose. The correct dose is 15 mL, not 10 mL.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Provide client with high-calorie finger foods throughout the day:
While providing high-calorie finger foods may increase caloric intake, it may not be the most effective strategy for a specific weight gain goal. It's essential to encourage a balanced and varied diet.
B. Teach the importance of a varied diet to meet nutritional needs:
This is a good general approach to promote overall nutritional health, but it may not be specific enough to address the immediate goal of gaining 2 pounds within a week.
C. Initiate total parenteral nutrition to meet dietary needs:
Total parenteral nutrition is an invasive and aggressive intervention typically reserved for cases where oral or enteral feeding is not possible or insufficient. It is not the first-line approach for someone who can consume food orally.
D. Accompany client to cafeteria to encourage adequate dietary consumption:
This is the most appropriate intervention. Accompanying the client to the cafeteria provides an opportunity for direct encouragement and support during meals. It helps ensure that the client is consuming an adequate amount of food, which is crucial for the goal of gaining 2 pounds within a week.
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