A client diagnosed with glaucoma receives a new prescription for dorzolamide. Prior to administering the medication, the nurse should review the electronic medical record for which allergy?
lodine.
Latex.
Penicillin.
Sulfonamide.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Iodine: An iodine allergy is more relevant for clients receiving contrast media or iodine-based antiseptics, not dorzolamide. Dorzolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, and its risk profile is not associated with iodine sensitivity.
B. Latex: Latex allergy is an important consideration in nursing care, particularly regarding equipment and supply use. However, dorzolamide as an ophthalmic preparation does not contain latex, so this allergy does not directly influence the safety of administering the drug.
C. Penicillin: Penicillin allergy is significant for antibiotics, but dorzolamide is not a beta-lactam or related medication. There is no cross-reactivity between penicillin and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, making this allergy less concerning for this prescription.
D. Sulfonamide: Dorzolamide contains a sulfonamide component, and clients with a sulfonamide allergy are at risk for hypersensitivity reactions such as rash, conjunctivitis, or even systemic effects. Reviewing the medical record for a sulfonamide allergy is essential before administration to prevent serious complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prone: Prone positioning limits assessment of spinal curvature, extremity alignment, and body symmetry because the client is lying on the abdomen, which can obscure certain postural deviations.
B. Sims: Sims position is primarily used for rectal or vaginal procedures and does not provide a full view of overall body alignment, making it less ideal for assessment purposes.
C. Supine: Supine position allows the client to lie flat on the back with the body fully supported. This position provides the best view of the head, neck, spine, shoulders, hips, and extremities for a comprehensive assessment of body alignment.
D. Fowlers: Fowlers position elevates the head and torso, which may alter natural spinal alignment and obscure an accurate assessment of posture and symmetry compared with a flat, supine position.
Correct Answer is ["C","E","G"]
Explanation
A. IV site without redness or swelling: The IV site appears normal with no signs of infiltration or infection, so no immediate follow-up is required. This finding indicates proper IV insertion and maintenance.
B. Temperature: 98.8° F (37.1° C): This is within normal limits and does not indicate fever or infection, so it does not require immediate follow-up.
C. Respirations: 28 breaths/minute: This is above the normal adult range (12–20 breaths/minute) and may indicate respiratory distress due to pain, shallow breathing, or possible pulmonary complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia, requiring close monitoring and follow-up.
D. Heart rate: 92 beats/minute: Slightly elevated but within mild tachycardia range, which could be related to pain or anxiety. It should be monitored but does not require urgent follow-up.
E. Taking shallow breaths: Shallow breathing is concerning in a client with rib fractures, as it increases the risk for hypoventilation, atelectasis, and pneumonia. This requires immediate intervention, such as pain management and respiratory support.
F. Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation: Cognitive status is normal, so no follow-up is needed.
G. Pain 8 on a 0 to 10 scale: Severe pain limits deep breathing and mobility, increasing the risk of complications. Pain management should be addressed promptly to improve comfort and respiratory function.
H. Blood pressure: 138/82 mm Hg: Slightly elevated, likely related to pain or stress. Monitor trends, but it does not require immediate follow-up at this time.
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