A 73-year-old patient has increased pulmonary pressure resulting in right heart failure. What could be a potential cause for the right heart to fail?

Left heart failure.

Pericarditis.

Hypertension.

Acute pneumonia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Left heart failure is a common cause of right heart failure. When the left side of the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, it can cause increased pressure in the lungs, which can then lead to right heart failure.
Choice B rationale
Pericarditis, an inflammation of the sac-like covering around the heart, is not typically a direct cause of right heart failure.
Choice C rationale
While hypertension, or high blood pressure, can contribute to heart failure, it typically affects the left side of the heart more than the right.
Choice D rationale
Acute pneumonia, an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs, is not typically a direct cause of right heart failure.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Bradycardia, palpitations, confusion, and truncal rash are not typically associated with septic shock. Septic shock is a severe infection that occurs when bacteria enter the bloodstream. It can cause organs to fail and can lead to death.
Choice B rationale
Severe respiratory distress, jugular venous distention, and chest pain are more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or pulmonary embolism, not septic shock.
Choice C rationale
Low blood pressure and tachycardia are common symptoms of septic shock. This happens because the body’s response to the infection causes blood vessels to dilate, which can lower blood pressure. The heart rate often increases (tachycardia) in an attempt to maintain blood flow to the organs.
Choice D rationale
Reduced cardiac output, increased systemic vascular resistance, and a moist cough are not typical symptoms of septic shock. These symptoms are more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure.

A. Heberden’s nodes. B. Bouchard’s nodes. C. Janeway lesions. D. Tophi.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Heberden’s nodes are bony swellings that occur at the distal interphalangeal finger joint, a sign of osteoarthritis. They are not associated with infective endocarditis (IE).
Choice B rationale
Bouchard’s nodes are similar to Heberden’s nodes but occur at the proximal interphalangeal finger joint. They are also a sign of osteoarthritis and not associated with IE.
Choice C rationale
Janeway lesions are flat, painless, red or purple spots on the palms of the hands or the soles of the feet. They are associated with IE and are caused by septic emboli which are small clots filled with bacteria. These emboli can lodge in small blood vessels, causing these characteristic lesions.
Choice D rationale
Tophi are hard, uric acid deposits under the skin. They are a sign of chronic gout, not IE.

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A 73-year-old patient has increased pulmonary pressure resulting in right heart failure. What could be a potential cause for the right heart to fail?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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