A 52-year-old male is diagnosed with chronic venous insufficiency, presenting with pooling of blood in the veins of the lower extremities and edema.
Which of the following is an expected assessment finding of this disorder?
Skin hyperpigmentation.
Gangrene.
Edema above the knee.
Deep vein thrombus formation.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Skin hyperpigmentation is a common symptom of chronic venous insufficiency. This happens because blood pools in the veins and can leak into the surrounding tissue, causing a change in skin color.
Choice B rationale
Gangrene is not a typical symptom of chronic venous insufficiency. Gangrene is a serious condition that occurs when tissue dies due to a lack of blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Edema, or swelling, is a common symptom of chronic venous insufficiency, but it typically occurs in the lower legs and ankles, not above the knee.
Choice D rationale
Deep vein thrombus formation is not a typical symptom of chronic venous insufficiency. However, a history of deep vein thrombosis can increase the risk of developing chronic venous insufficiency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While assessing the gag reflex is important in certain situations, such as after surgery involving anesthesia, it is not typically a crucial assessment following Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA) of the lower extremity.
Choice B rationale
Checking for dye allergies is important before a procedure that uses contrast dye. However, it is not a crucial post-procedure assessment.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring of pedal pulses is crucial following PTA of the lower extremity. This is because the procedure involves the arteries in the legs, and monitoring pedal pulses can help assess blood flow to the area and detect potential complications such as occlusion or clot formation.
Choice D rationale
While the Ankle-Brachial Index can be used to diagnose Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD), it is not typically a crucial assessment immediately following PTA3.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 59-year-old patient with unstable angina who has just returned from a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) should be prioritized for assessment. PCI is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed coronary arteries and can lead to complications such as re-occlusion of the artery or bleeding from the catheter insertion site. Furthermore, unstable angina is a condition that can progress to myocardial infarction if not managed effectively.
Choice B rationale
A 56-year-old patient with variant angina due to receive nifedipine (Procardia) requires monitoring, but is not the highest priority. Variant angina is a form of angina that occurs at rest, often with severe pain, but it is usually well-controlled with medications like nifedipine.
Choice C rationale
A 65-year-old patient who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about discharge planned for today is a lower priority for assessment. While it’s important to address the patient’s anxiety and provide education about post-discharge care, this patient is not in immediate danger.
Choice D rationale
A 39-year-old patient with pericarditis complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain requires assessment, but is not the highest priority. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like covering of the heart, and while it can cause severe pain, it is not typically life- threatening.
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