A 35-year-old patient presents with pulmonary hypertension and is diagnosed with right heart failure. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve doesn’t close tightly, causing blood to leak back into the left ventricle. This condition can lead to left heart failure but is not typically associated with right heart failure.
Choice B rationale
Mitral regurgitation is a disorder in which the mitral valve on the left side of the heart does not close properly. This condition can lead to left heart failure but is not typically associated with right heart failure.
Choice C rationale
Aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve opening. This condition can lead to left heart failure but is not typically associated with right heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Tricuspid regurgitation is a disorder in which the heart’s tricuspid valve does not close properly, causing blood to flow backward into the right atrium. This condition can lead to right heart failure, especially when associated with pulmonary hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 39-year-old patient experiencing tenderness and swelling in the right calf following a flight may be experiencing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a condition that can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism if not treated. However, DVT is not immediately life-threatening in most cases.
Choice B rationale
A 58-year-old patient on anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation presenting with black stools is likely experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding, a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. This can lead to severe blood loss, anemia, and hypovolemic shock, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Therefore, this patient should be prioritized for assessment.
Choice C rationale
A 67-year-old patient with a gangrenous foot ulcer and a weak pedal pulse likely has peripheral artery disease and an infection that could lead to sepsis if not treated. However, while this condition needs medical attention, it is not as immediately life-threatening as gastrointestinal bleeding.
Choice D rationale
A 50-year-old patient reporting sudden, severe upper back pain could be experiencing a number of conditions, ranging from musculoskeletal strain to aortic dissection. While an aortic dissection is a medical emergency, without additional symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or loss of consciousness, this patient is not the highest priority.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic medication used to treat hypertension and edema. One of the side effects of furosemide is hypokalemia, or low potassium levels. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is lower than the normal range (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L), which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.
Therefore, this observation is crucial to communicate to the healthcare provider.
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