A 65-year-old patient with congestive heart failure has been on diuretic therapy for the past two weeks. During a follow-up appointment, which of the following findings would indicate that the diuretic therapy is effective?
Increase in blood pressure and heart rate
Significant weight gain over the past two weeks
Reduction in peripheral edema and improved breathing
Development of muscle cramps and weakness
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. This would indicate possible fluid retention or worsening heart function, not effective diuretic therapy. Effective diuretics usually help reduce fluid overload, which may lower blood pressure in hypertensive patients.
B. Rapid weight gain is a sign of fluid retention, which suggests diuretic therapy is not effective or the patient’s heart failure is worsening.
C. These findings indicate that excess fluid is being successfully removed from the body. Decreased swelling in the extremities and improved respiratory status reflect effective diuresis and improved cardiac function, which is the goal of therapy.
D. While these can occur due to electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics, they are adverse effects rather than indicators of effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This is a long-term treatment for recurrent VT or other arrhythmias. It is not an immediate intervention for acute, unstable VT.
B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed only if the client is pulseless and unresponsive. While CPR may be necessary in cardiac arrest, it is not the first-line intervention for VT with a pulse.
C. Synchronized cardioversion is used for hemodynamically stable VT with a pulse, but the term “elective” implies a planned procedure, not emergency management.
D. For pulseless VT or VT causing severe instability (e.g., hypotension, altered mental status), defibrillation is the immediate lifesaving intervention. It delivers an unsynchronized shock to restore normal cardiac rhythm.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. While adequate hydration is generally beneficial, pericarditis management does not typically require aggressive fluid intake, and overhydration could exacerbate complications, especially if there is concurrent heart failure.
B. This statement is not relevant to pericarditis, as having pericarditis does not necessitate avoidance of driving unless there are specific complications or comorbidities.
C. NSAIDs are used to reduce inflammation and pain in pericarditis; sexual activity is not contraindicated while on these medications unless the client is experiencing symptoms that limit activity.
D. This indicates understanding because chest pain can signify worsening pericarditis or complications such as cardiac tamponade or myocardial involvement, and prompt evaluation is necessary.
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