A 65-year-old patient with congestive heart failure has been on diuretic therapy for the past two weeks. During a follow-up appointment, which of the following findings would indicate that the diuretic therapy is effective?
Increase in blood pressure and heart rate
Significant weight gain over the past two weeks
Reduction in peripheral edema and improved breathing
Development of muscle cramps and weakness
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. This would indicate possible fluid retention or worsening heart function, not effective diuretic therapy. Effective diuretics usually help reduce fluid overload, which may lower blood pressure in hypertensive patients.
B. Rapid weight gain is a sign of fluid retention, which suggests diuretic therapy is not effective or the patient’s heart failure is worsening.
C. These findings indicate that excess fluid is being successfully removed from the body. Decreased swelling in the extremities and improved respiratory status reflect effective diuresis and improved cardiac function, which is the goal of therapy.
D. While these can occur due to electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics, they are adverse effects rather than indicators of effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This would indicate possible fluid retention or worsening heart function, not effective diuretic therapy. Effective diuretics usually help reduce fluid overload, which may lower blood pressure in hypertensive patients.
B. Rapid weight gain is a sign of fluid retention, which suggests diuretic therapy is not effective or the patient’s heart failure is worsening.
C. These findings indicate that excess fluid is being successfully removed from the body. Decreased swelling in the extremities and improved respiratory status reflect effective diuresis and improved cardiac function, which is the goal of therapy.
D. While these can occur due to electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics, they are adverse effects rather than indicators of effectiveness.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Catheter ablation does not directly improve myocardial contractility; its purpose is focused on electrical conduction rather than muscle strength.
B. While controlling ventricular response may occur with medications, ablation targets the atrial electrical pathways rather than directly controlling ventricular rate.
C. Anticoagulation decisions depend on stroke risk (e.g., CHA₂DS₂-VASc score); ablation does not automatically remove the need for anticoagulants.
D. The primary goal of catheter ablation in atrial fibrillation is to eliminate abnormal electrical pathways causing arrhythmia, thereby restoring and maintaining normal sinus rhythm and reducing symptoms.
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