A 56-year-old male client at a screening event has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, the client states, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" What is the nurse's best response?

"Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination."

"We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because age places you at high risk for hypertension."

"A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made.

"You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination.": This response is premature as it assumes a diagnosis of hypertension based on a single elevated blood pressure reading without further assessment or confirmation.

B. "We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because age places you at high risk for hypertension.": While age is a risk factor for hypertension, it is important not to jump to conclusions based on one blood pressure reading. Reevaluation and monitoring are necessary before making any definitive diagnoses or treatment decisions.

C. "A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made.": This response is appropriate because it acknowledges the need for further assessment and monitoring before determining if the client has hypertension. It also educates the client about the importance of multiple readings for an accurate diagnosis.

D. "You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide accurate information about blood pressure assessment and hypertension diagnosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Initiate a peripheral IV:

Initiating a peripheral intravenous (IV) line may be necessary for clients with unstable angina to facilitate the administration of medications and fluids, especially if there is a need for further interventions or if the client's condition deteriorates. However, in this case, the client's chest pain has improved after receiving nitroglycerin, and there is no immediate indication for IV access based on the information provided.

B. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet:

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve chest pain (angina) by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. The initial response of the client's chest pain severity decreasing from 6 to 2 after one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet indicates a positive response to the medication. However, it's important to assess the client's response further before administering additional doses of nitroglycerin, especially considering the potential for hypotension or other adverse effects.

C. Call the Rapid Response Team:

The Rapid Response Team (RRT) is typically called in situations where there is a concern for a critical event or deterioration of a client's condition that requires immediate intervention. In this scenario, the client's chest pain has improved after nitroglycerin administration, and there are no indications of an acute critical event at this time. Therefore, calling the RRT is not warranted based on the client's current status.

D. Obtain an ECG:

An ECG can be helpful to assess for potential ischemia or other cardiac abnormalities. However, it's not the most urgent action when the client is responding positively to nitroglycerin. It can be done while monitoring the client's response to the second dose.

A. Administer aspirin B. 12 Lead Electrocardiography C. Assess vital signs D. Administer morphine

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Administer aspirin:

Aspirin is commonly given to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it helps to inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of further clot formation. However, the administration of aspirin typically follows the confirmation of a cardiac event through diagnostic tests like the ECG. Aspirin is not the initial priority compared to obtaining diagnostic data.

B. 12 Lead Electrocardiography (ECG):

This is the most critical and time-sensitive action because it helps to quickly assess the patient's cardiac status. A 12 Lead ECG can identify important findings such as ST-segment elevation or depression, which are indicative of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) or other cardiac abnormalities. Early detection and intervention are crucial in improving outcomes for patients with suspected cardiac events.

C. Assess vital signs:

Vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation, provide valuable information about the patient's overall condition and can help determine the severity of the cardiac event. While assessing vital signs is important, performing the ECG takes precedence due to its immediate relevance in diagnosing and managing a potential cardiac emergency.

D. Administer morphine:

Morphine may be indicated for pain relief in patients with acute coronary syndromes. However, its administration should be based on the patient's pain level, hemodynamic stability, and other factors assessed after obtaining the ECG and vital signs. Morphine administration is not the primary action within the first 10 minutes of the patient's arrival; it follows the initial assessment and diagnostic procedures.

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A 56-year-old male client at a screening event has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, the client states, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" What is the nurse's best response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client in the ED just arriving with severe chest pain, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, and jugular distention. What will be the most important thing the nurse will do within the first 10 minutes?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When providing discharge instructions for a client who has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for stable angina, the nurse should plan to include which instructions?

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