A 56-year-old male client at a screening event has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, the client states, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" What is the nurse's best response?

"Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination."

"We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because age places you at high risk for hypertension."

"A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made.

"You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination.": This response is premature as it assumes a diagnosis of hypertension based on a single elevated blood pressure reading without further assessment or confirmation.

B. "We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because age places you at high risk for hypertension.": While age is a risk factor for hypertension, it is important not to jump to conclusions based on one blood pressure reading. Reevaluation and monitoring are necessary before making any definitive diagnoses or treatment decisions.

C. "A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made.": This response is appropriate because it acknowledges the need for further assessment and monitoring before determining if the client has hypertension. It also educates the client about the importance of multiple readings for an accurate diagnosis.

D. "You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide accurate information about blood pressure assessment and hypertension diagnosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Initiate a peripheral IV:

Initiating a peripheral intravenous (IV) line may be necessary for clients with unstable angina to facilitate the administration of medications and fluids, especially if there is a need for further interventions or if the client's condition deteriorates. However, in this case, the client's chest pain has improved after receiving nitroglycerin, and there is no immediate indication for IV access based on the information provided.

B. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet:

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve chest pain (angina) by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. The initial response of the client's chest pain severity decreasing from 6 to 2 after one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet indicates a positive response to the medication. However, it's important to assess the client's response further before administering additional doses of nitroglycerin, especially considering the potential for hypotension or other adverse effects.

C. Call the Rapid Response Team:

The Rapid Response Team (RRT) is typically called in situations where there is a concern for a critical event or deterioration of a client's condition that requires immediate intervention. In this scenario, the client's chest pain has improved after nitroglycerin administration, and there are no indications of an acute critical event at this time. Therefore, calling the RRT is not warranted based on the client's current status.

D. Obtain an ECG:

An ECG can be helpful to assess for potential ischemia or other cardiac abnormalities. However, it's not the most urgent action when the client is responding positively to nitroglycerin. It can be done while monitoring the client's response to the second dose.

A. The symptoms indicate an acute coronary episode and should be treated as such. B. The symptoms indicate angina and should be treated as such. C. Treatment should be determined pending the results of an exercise stress test. D. The symptoms indicate a pulmonary etiology rather than a cardiac etiology.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The symptoms indicate an acute coronary episode and should be treated as such:

The client's symptoms, including sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest and a history of coronary artery disease (CAD), strongly suggest an acute coronary event, such as a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Pale, cool skin can also be indicative of decreased perfusion due to cardiac compromise. Given these critical signs and symptoms, the nurse should interpret this as a potential cardiac emergency and initiate immediate interventions aimed at managing and stabilizing the client's condition.

B. The symptoms indicate angina and should be treated as such:

While angina can present with symptoms such as chest pain, it is typically relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. In contrast, the client in this scenario has midsternal chest pain that is not relieved with rest, which is more indicative of an acute coronary event like a myocardial infarction. Therefore, interpreting the symptoms as angina and treating them as such may not be appropriate given the severity and persistence of the chest pain.

C. Treatment should be determined pending the results of an exercise stress test:

Waiting for the results of an exercise stress test is not appropriate in this scenario, as the client's presentation suggests an acute cardiac event that requires immediate intervention. Exercise stress tests are typically used for diagnostic purposes to assess cardiovascular function under controlled conditions but are not suitable for managing acute coronary episodes or emergencies.

D. The symptoms indicate a pulmonary etiology rather than a cardiac etiology:

While some symptoms, such as shortness of breath or chest pain, can overlap between cardiac and pulmonary conditions, the client's presentation with sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, pale cool skin, and a history of CAD strongly suggests a cardiac etiology, specifically an acute coronary event. It is essential to prioritize cardiac assessment and intervention based on the client's symptoms and medical history.

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A 56-year-old male client at a screening event has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, the client states, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" What is the nurse's best response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Family members bring a client to the ED with pale cool skin, sudden midsternal chest pain unrelieved with rest, and a history of CAD. How should the nurse best interpret these initial data?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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