A 56-year-old male client at a screening event has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, the client states, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" What is the nurse's best response?

"Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination."

"We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because age places you at high risk for hypertension."

"A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made.

"You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. "Yes. Hypertension is prevalent among men; it is fortunate we caught this during your routine examination.": This response is premature as it assumes a diagnosis of hypertension based on a single elevated blood pressure reading without further assessment or confirmation.

B. "We will need to reevaluate your blood pressure because age places you at high risk for hypertension.": While age is a risk factor for hypertension, it is important not to jump to conclusions based on one blood pressure reading. Reevaluation and monitoring are necessary before making any definitive diagnoses or treatment decisions.

C. "A single elevated blood pressure does not confirm hypertension. You will need to have your blood pressure reassessed several times before a diagnosis can be made.": This response is appropriate because it acknowledges the need for further assessment and monitoring before determining if the client has hypertension. It also educates the client about the importance of multiple readings for an accurate diagnosis.

D. "You have no need to worry. Your pressure is probably elevated because you are being tested.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide accurate information about blood pressure assessment and hypertension diagnosis.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This result indicates muscle injury but does not specify the source.

This statement is partly correct. An elevated troponin I level does indicate muscle injury, specifically damage to the heart muscle. However, troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle, so an elevated level would indeed specify the source as cardiac or myocardial injury.

B. Because the client has a history of unstable angina, this is a poor indicator of myocardial injury.

This statement is incorrect. A history of unstable angina does not diminish the significance of an elevated troponin I level. In fact, unstable angina is itself a serious condition that can lead to myocardial injury or heart attack, and an elevated troponin I level in this context indicates ongoing or recent myocardial damage.

C. This is only an accurate indicator of myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hours.

This statement is not entirely accurate. While it is true that troponin I levels may continue to rise and peak within 12-24 hours after the onset of myocardial injury, an elevated troponin I level at any point is still a significant indicator of myocardial damage. It's essential to recognize elevated troponin I levels promptly to initiate appropriate interventions and monitor the client's cardiac status closely.

D. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury.

This statement is correct. An elevated troponin I level is a highly sensitive and specific marker of myocardial injury. It indicates damage to the heart muscle, which can occur due to conditions like unstable angina, heart attack (myocardial infarction), myocarditis, or other cardiac issues. Therefore, recognizing an elevated troponin I level in a client with unstable angina is crucial for proper management and further evaluation.

A. The nurse stays with the client for 15 minutes after beginning the transfusion. B. The nurse primes the blood tubing with lactated ringers. C. The nurse starts the infusion at a slow rate for the first 15 minutes. D. The nurse witnesses the client sign the consent form for the blood transfusion.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The nurse stays with the client for 15 minutes after beginning the transfusion:

This action is appropriate as it ensures the nurse monitors the client closely for any immediate adverse reactions during the initial phase of the transfusion.

B. The nurse primes the blood tubing with lactated Ringer's solution:

This action is incorrect and potentially dangerous. Blood tubing should be primed with normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) solution, not lactated Ringer's solution, to prevent potential adverse reactions or hemolysis of the blood products.

C. The nurse starts the infusion at a slow rate for the first 15 minutes:

This action is appropriate as it allows for the initial assessment of the client's tolerance to the transfusion and reduces the risk of adverse reactions.

D. The nurse witnesses the client sign the consent form for the blood transfusion:

This action is appropriate and ensures that the client has provided informed consent for the procedure.

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A 56-year-old male client at a screening event has a blood pressure reading of 146/96 mm Hg. Upon hearing the reading, the client states, "My pressure has never been this high. Do you think my doctor will prescribe medication to reduce it?" What is the nurse's best response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with unstable angina. The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this client. The nurse should recognize what implication of this assessment finding?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A charge nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBC) to a client who has anemia. Which of the following actions by the new nurse should cause the charge nurse to intervene in this client's care immediately?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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