A 51 year old male has been diagnosed with alcohol-induced liver disease. He admits to the nurse he does not understand what the liver does in the body. Which of these statements best explains the liver's function?
The liver metabolizes most components of food (protein, carbohydrates and fats) and also cleans the blood of bacteria and drugs
The liver maintains a balanced level of electrolytes and pH in the body and stores glucose, minerals and vitamins
The liver is responsible for the absorption of most dietary nutrients as well as the production of growth hormones.
The liver contributes to the metabolism of ingested food and provides the fluids that the GI tract requires
The Correct Answer is A
A. The liver metabolizes most components of food (protein, carbohydrates and fats) and also cleans the blood of bacteria and drugs: The liver plays a central role in metabolism, including converting nutrients into energy or storage forms, breaking down toxins, metabolizing drugs, and filtering bacteria from the blood via Kupffer cells.
B. The liver maintains a balanced level of electrolytes and pH in the body and stores glucose, minerals and vitamins: While the liver stores glycogen and some vitamins and minerals, it does not directly regulate electrolyte or pH balance, which is primarily the function of the kidneys and respiratory system.
C. The liver is responsible for the absorption of most dietary nutrients as well as the production of growth hormones: Nutrient absorption is mainly the role of the small intestine. Growth hormone is produced by the pituitary gland, not the liver, making this statement inaccurate.
D. The liver contributes to the metabolism of ingested food and provides the fluids that the GI tract requires: Although the liver produces bile, which aids in fat digestion, it does not supply most of the fluids needed by the GI tract. Salivary glands, gastric glands, pancreas, and intestines contribute the majority of GI fluids.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F","I"]
Explanation
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Heart rate: 92/min: Improved from 109/min on Day 1, showing better autonomic control.
A heart rate within normal range indicates reduced stress or inflammation. This suggests pain management and fluid status have improved. -
Respiratory rate: 20/min: Improved from 26/min, now within normal limits. This reflects decreased respiratory effort and better oxygenation. The labored breathing on Day 1 has also resolved.
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Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air: Increased from 93% on Day 1, indicating improved gas exchange. No supplemental oxygen was required, suggesting stable pulmonary function.
This is a positive sign especially given the initial diminished breath sounds. -
Client rates pain as 3/10 after medication: The pain is down from 8/10 on Day 1, showing effective analgesia. Pain control improves patient comfort and respiratory status. The pain was likely contributing to tachypnea and lethargy on Day 1.
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Respirations even and unlabored; chest clear on auscultation: Improved from "rapid, labored" with "diminished" breath sounds on day 1 which suggests resolution of respiratory compromise and pain-related restriction. Likely associated with improved oxygen saturation and decreased fatigue..
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Passing flatus: This indicates return of peristalsis and some bowel activity. These findings were not present on Day 1, showing progress. Flatus passage often precedes return to full bowel function.
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Urinating without difficulty; urine clear yellow: These findings indicate stable renal function, no hematuria or concentration issues. The findings were maintained across both days, with no signs of obstruction or dehydration which uggests effective fluid balance and kidney perfusion.
Rationale for Incorrect Findings:
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Bowel sounds hypoactive in all quadrants: No change from Day 1, suggests slow GI recovery. Hypoactivity may reflect paralytic ileus or continued inflammation.
Despite passage of flatus, bowel function remains impaired. -
Client vomiting brown liquid and reports continuing nausea: This is a new symptom on Day 2, worsening GI symptoms despite earlier improvement. Brown emesis may suggest delayed gastric emptying or possible GI bleeding.
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Reports extreme fatigue: Fatigue is more severe than Day 1's lethargy and may reflect nutritional deficits, systemic inflammation, or sleep disruption. Despite improved pain and respiratory status, overall energy is low.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Imaging tests are likely to reveal scarring and deformation of the renal calices and pelvis: These findings are more typical of chronic pyelonephritis, which results from repeated or persistent kidney infections. Acute pyelonephritis usually presents with more subtle imaging changes.
B. Most cases of acute pyelonephritis are attributable to poorly controlled hypertension: While hypertension can complicate kidney disease, it is not a common cause of acute pyelonephritis. Most cases are due to ascending urinary tract infections, particularly from organisms like E. coli.
C. Flank pain, dysuria and nausea and vomiting are likely assessment findings: These are hallmark symptoms of acute pyelonephritis. Flank pain results from inflammation of the renal capsule, while dysuria and systemic symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and fever indicate infection.
D. The infection in the kidney is most likely a manifestation of a systemic infection: Acute pyelonephritis is typically caused by local ascending infections from the lower urinary tract, not systemic bacteremia. Though it can lead to systemic illness if not treated, its origin is usually localized.
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