A 5-year-old boy with mumps is being transferred to the pediatric unit. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Place an isolation cart outside of the room to initiate droplet precautions.

Schedule bedside play time with the occupational therapist.

Instruct the child's parents about the need for transmission precautions.

Assign the child to a room close to the nurse's station.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: This is the best action because it prevents the spread of infection to other clients and staff. Mumps is a viral infection that causes inflammation of the salivary glands and can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. The nurse should place an isolation cart outside of the room and wear a mask, gloves, and gown when entering.

Choice B Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not address the risk of infection. The nurse should schedule bedside play time with the occupational therapist to promote the child's development and coping, but this can be done later.

Choice C Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not ensure that infection control measures are in place. The nurse should instruct the child's parents about the need for transmission precautions and educate them on how to care for their child at home, but this can be done later.

Choice D Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not prevent the spread of infection. The nurse should assign the child to a room close to the nurse's station to monitor his condition and provide comfort, but this is not a critical intervention.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) This intervention is not the best because it may take too much time and energy from the nurse, who needs to focus on the client's critical condition. The nurse may also have to repeat the same information multiple times, which can be frustrating and confusing for both the nurse and the family.

B) This intervention is not the best because it may not be feasible or appropriate at this time. The healthcare provider may be busy with other clients or procedures, and may not be able to speak with the family right away. The healthcare provider may also need to obtain the client's consent or permission before disclosing any information to the family, which may not be possible if the client is sedated.

C) This intervention is the best because it can help reduce the number and frequency of questions, and facilitate clear and consistent communication between the nurse and the family. The nurse can ask the family to choose one person who will act as their representative and spokesperson, and who will relay any information or updates to the rest of the family. This can also help respect the client's privacy and confidentiality, and prevent any conflicting or contradictory messages.

D) This intervention is not the best because it may not address the family's informational needs or preferences. The chaplain on call may provide spiritual or emotional support to the family, but may not be able to answer any medical or technical questions. The family may also have different religious or cultural beliefs that may not align with the chaplain's role or perspective.

A. The brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) assay for a client with shortness of breath after a myocardial infarction (MI) increases to 1000 pg/mL (1000 ng/L). B. The international normalized ratio (INR) for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy increases to 2.5. C. The serum glucose level for a client receiving corticosteroids increases to 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L). D. The potassium level for a client scheduled for renal dialysis increases to 5 mEq/L(5 mmol/L).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This client has a very high BNP level, which indicates severe heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should follow up with this client first, as they may need urgent interventions such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.

Choice B Reason: This client has an INR within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy, which is usually between 2 and 3. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of bleeding or clotting, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice C Reason: This client has a mildly elevated glucose level, which may be caused by the corticosteroids that

increase blood sugar. The nurse should check the client's blood glucose regularly and administer insulin as ordered, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

Choice D Reason: This client has a normal potassium level, which is within the reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should ensure that the client is ready for dialysis and avoid foods high in potassium, but they do not require immediate follow-up.

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A 5-year-old boy with mumps is being transferred to the pediatric unit. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

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Explanation

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Explanation

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