A 5-year-old boy with mumps is being transferred to the pediatric unit. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Place an isolation cart outside of the room to initiate droplet precautions.
Schedule bedside play time with the occupational therapist.
Instruct the child's parents about the need for transmission precautions.
Assign the child to a room close to the nurse's station.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is the best action because it prevents the spread of infection to other clients and staff. Mumps is a viral infection that causes inflammation of the salivary glands and can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. The nurse should place an isolation cart outside of the room and wear a mask, gloves, and gown when entering.
Choice B Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not address the risk of infection. The nurse should schedule bedside play time with the occupational therapist to promote the child's development and coping, but this can be done later.
Choice C Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not ensure that infection control measures are in place. The nurse should instruct the child's parents about the need for transmission precautions and educate them on how to care for their child at home, but this can be done later.
Choice D Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not prevent the spread of infection. The nurse should assign the child to a room close to the nurse's station to monitor his condition and provide comfort, but this is not a critical intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This intervention is the most appropriate and effective for the nurse-manager to employ, as it provides clear and objective feedback to the staff nurse based on professional criteria, and encourages a positive and constructive approach to enhance the nurse's performance and development.
Choice B Reason: This intervention is not advisable, as it may create a false impression of the staff nurse's performance and fail to address the underlying issues or problems. Documenting the nurse's negative behaviors is important for accountability and improvement purposes, and avoiding it may expose the nurse manager to legal or ethical risks.
Choice C Reason: This intervention is not optimal, as it may demoralize or discourage the staff nurse and create a negative or hostile work environment. Focusing only on the areas of weakness may overlook the strengths and potential of the staff nurse, and may not foster a supportive and collaborative relationship between the nurse- manager and the staff nurse.
Choice D Reason: This intervention is not relevant, as it may divert the attention from the staff nurse's performance and shift the blame to external factors. Discussing how the inconsistency in the staff nurse's performance disrupts the routine of all of the staff members on the unit may not help the staff nurse identify and address their own areas of improvement, and may cause resentment or conflict among the team.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: The initial administration of the analgesic is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The opioid analgesic was prescribed by the healthcare provider and was appropriate for the postoperative pain management of the client.
Choice B Reason: The decision regarding when to call the healthcare provider is an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse should have called the healthcare provider as soon as the client's
respiratory rate decreased to 6 breaths/minute, which is a sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Waiting for another 30 minutes until the respiratory rate decreased to 4 breaths/minute could have put the client at risk of hypoxia, brain damage, or death.
Choice C Reason: The documentation of the client's respiratory rate is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse documented the client's respiratory rate accurately and timely, which is part of the standard of care and legal responsibility of the nurse.
Choice D Reason: The administration of naloxone via IV is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids and restores normal respiration. Administering naloxone via IV is the fastest and most effective way to treat opioid-induced respiratory depression.
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