Which client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
An older adult receiving enteral feedings via feeding tube who has a temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C).
A client with acute kidney injury who is somnolent and does not respond to verbal commands.
A young adult who experienced heat stroke and is receiving a normal saline intravenous (IV) fluid bolus.
A pregnant client with hyperemesis gravidarum who is receiving an infusion of Ringer's Lactate.
The Correct Answer is B
A) This client has a mild fever, which may indicate an infection or inflammation. This is a potential complication of enteral feedings, but it is not the most urgent situation. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, assess the feeding tube site, and notify the provider if the fever persists or worsens.
B) This client has signs of uremic encephalopathy, which is a life-threatening condition caused by the accumulation of toxins in the brain due to impaired renal function. The nurse should intervene immediately to prevent further
neurological damage and possible coma or death. The nurse should assess the client's level of consciousness, check the blood pressure and urine output, and prepare to administer dialysis or other treatments as ordered by the provider.
C) This client has heat stroke, which is a serious condition that can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and organ damage. However, the client is receiving a normal saline IV fluid bolus, which is an appropriate intervention to restore fluid volume and correct sodium levels. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's vital signs, skin
temperature, and urine output, and watch for signs of fluid overload or cerebral edema.
D) This client has hyperemesis gravidarum, which is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration, malnutrition, and electrolyte imbalance. However, the client is receiving an infusion of Ringer's Lactate, which is an isotonic solution that can replenish fluid and electrolyte losses. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's vital signs, weight, and intake and output, and administer antiemetics or other medications as ordered by the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.
Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.
Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.
Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This intervention is not the best because it may take too much time and energy from the nurse, who needs to focus on the client's critical condition. The nurse may also have to repeat the same information multiple times, which can be frustrating and confusing for both the nurse and the family.
B) This intervention is not the best because it may not be feasible or appropriate at this time. The healthcare provider may be busy with other clients or procedures, and may not be able to speak with the family right away. The healthcare provider may also need to obtain the client's consent or permission before disclosing any information to the family, which may not be possible if the client is sedated.
C) This intervention is the best because it can help reduce the number and frequency of questions, and facilitate clear and consistent communication between the nurse and the family. The nurse can ask the family to choose one person who will act as their representative and spokesperson, and who will relay any information or updates to the rest of the family. This can also help respect the client's privacy and confidentiality, and prevent any conflicting or contradictory messages.
D) This intervention is not the best because it may not address the family's informational needs or preferences. The chaplain on call may provide spiritual or emotional support to the family, but may not be able to answer any medical or technical questions. The family may also have different religious or cultural beliefs that may not align with the chaplain's role or perspective.
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