A 45-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of tingling in the fingers, muscle cramps, and fatigue. Her laboratory results show low serum calcium, low parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels, and elevated serum phosphate levels. Based on these lab results, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Chronic kidney disease
Vitamin D deficiency
Hypoparathyroidism
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated PTH levels, which lead to increased serum calcium levels and decreased serum phosphate levels. The patient’s lab results show low PTH and low serum calcium, which are not consistent with primary hyperparathyroidism.
Choice B Reason:
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, but it typically presents with elevated PTH levels due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. The patient’s low PTH levels make CKD an unlikely diagnosis in this context.
Choice C Reason:
Vitamin D deficiency can lead to low serum calcium levels, but it usually results in elevated PTH levels as the body attempts to compensate for the low calcium. The patient’s low PTH levels do not align with a diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency.
Choice D Reason:
Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by low serum calcium, low PTH levels, and elevated serum phosphate levels. This condition occurs when the parathyroid glands do not produce enough PTH, leading to the observed lab results and symptoms such as tingling, muscle cramps, and fatigue. The patient’s lab results are consistent with hypoparathyroidism.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) are common and typically present with fever, chills, and sometimes rigors. However, they do not usually cause severe symptoms such as back pain and difficulty breathing. FNHTRs are generally less severe and are caused by the recipient’s immune response to donor white blood cells or cytokines in the transfused blood.
Choice B Reason:
Allergic reactions to blood transfusions can range from mild to severe. Mild reactions may include itching, hives, and rash, while severe reactions (anaphylaxis) can cause difficulty breathing and hypotension. However, allergic reactions do not typically cause back pain, which is more indicative of a hemolytic process.
Choice C Reason:
Fluid overload, also known as transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), can occur when too much blood is transfused too quickly. Symptoms include dyspnea, hypertension, and pulmonary edema. While difficulty breathing is a symptom of fluid overload, chills and back pain are not typical features.
Choice D Reason:
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. AHTR occurs when the recipient’s immune system attacks the transfused red blood cells, leading to their destruction. This reaction can cause severe symptoms such as chills, fever, back pain, and difficulty breathing. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications, including kidney failure and shock.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Administering propranolol intravenously is the most appropriate initial intervention for managing a thyroid storm. Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia. Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, helps control these symptoms by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Additionally, propranolol inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, the more active form of thyroid hormone, thereby reducing the overall thyroid hormone activity. This makes it a critical first step in stabilizing the patient.
Choice B Reason:
Administering dextrose 50% intravenously is not the most appropriate initial intervention for thyroid storm. Dextrose 50% is typically used to treat severe hypoglycemia by rapidly increasing blood glucose levels. While maintaining adequate glucose levels is important, it does not address the primary issue of excessive thyroid hormone activity in thyroid storm.
Choice C Reason:
Administering levothyroxine orally is inappropriate in the context of thyroid storm. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of T4 used to treat hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Administering it in a thyroid storm would exacerbate the condition by increasing the levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
Choice D Reason:
Administering insulin to control hyperglycemia is not the primary intervention for thyroid storm. While hyperglycemia can occur in thyroid storm due to increased metabolic activity, the immediate priority is to control the excessive thyroid hormone activity. Insulin administration would be secondary to stabilizing the patient’s thyroid function.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.