A 35-year-old pregnant woman with irregular periods, G4 T2 PO A1 L2 is 28 weeks pregnant by the last ultrasound, when she experiences bright red and painless vaginal bleeding, fetal contour is easily assessed, and uterine tone is normal. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure or test to confirm the diagnosis?
Select one:
Vaginal Ultrasound for placental location
Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
Abdominal Ultrasound for placental location
Contraction stress test (CST)
The Correct Answer is A
a. This would help determine the location of the placenta and whether placenta previa is present, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding.
b. This is not typically done for diagnosis of painless vaginal bleeding.
c. While an abdominal ultrasound can also determine the location of the placenta, a vaginal ultrasound is more accurate for this purpose.
d. This is not typically done for diagnosis of painless vaginal bleeding.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral STI, not bacterial.
b. Herpes simplex is a viral STI, not bacterial.
c. Condyloma lata is a manifestation of secondary syphilis, which is caused by Treponema pallidum, a bacterium, but it is not the most common bacterial STI.
d. Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count without an identifiable cause, which is not the case in this scenario.
b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting system, which is not the case in this scenario.
c. HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of preeclampsia characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count.
d. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures, which is not the case in this scenario.
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