A 25-year-old client who had a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse knows that assessment for what complication has the highest priority for this client?
Placenta accreta
Hard, painful uterine afterpains.
Postpartum psychosis.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
The Correct Answer is D
A. Placenta accreta: Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. While this can be a concern, the client in this scenario has already given birth, so this may not be the highest priority at this moment.
B. Hard, painful uterine afterpains: Afterpains are common in the postpartum period, especially in women who have given birth to multiples. While they can be uncomfortable, they are generally expected and not considered a severe complication.
C. Postpartum psychosis: Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can occur after childbirth. It is characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and severe mood disturbances. While it is a serious concern, it might not be the immediate priority in a client who has had a severe postpartum hemorrhage.
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): This is a life-threatening condition where there is widespread activation of clotting factors, leading to excessive blood clotting followed by bleeding. Given the history of severe postpartum hemorrhage, DIC is a significant concern, and prompt assessment and intervention are crucial.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Instruct the client to maintain bed rest for 24 hours:
There is no clear indication for bed rest based solely on a slightly elevated temperature. Bed rest is not a standard recommendation for this situation.
B. Encourage the client to increase her intake of oral fluids:
Increasing fluid intake is a general recommendation for mild elevations in temperature. Adequate hydration can support the body's natural response to infection or inflammation.
C. Schedule a visit with the healthcare provider today:
This option is a prudent choice. A temperature elevation after a medical procedure may indicate an infection, and it's appropriate to schedule a visit with the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
D. Verify the administered Rho(D) immune globulin's compatibility:
While verifying the compatibility of the administered medication is important, it is not the primary concern when a client reports an elevated temperature. In this context, addressing the temperature and potential infection takes precedence.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Prepare for a cesarean section:Active herpes lesions are a contraindication for vaginal delivery due to the risk of transmitting the herpes simplex virus (HSV) to the newborn. A cesarean section is necessary to prevent the baby from coming into direct contact with the herpes lesions and reduce the risk of neonatal herpes infection.
Cover the lesion with a dressing:While covering the lesion might be part of overall care, it does not address the primary concern of preventing transmission to the newborn during delivery.
Obtain blood cultures:
Obtaining blood cultures may not be the primary action in this situation. The concern is more related to preventing the transmission of the herpes virus to the newborn.
Administer penicillin:
Penicillin is not the treatment for herpes. Antiviral medications such as acyclovir are typically used for the treatment of herpes infections.
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