A 24-year-old woman arrives at the clinic to confirm her pregnancy.
She has a body mass index (BMI) of 17, admits to occasional cocaine use and alcohol consumption, and has a blood pressure of 108/70 mm Hg. Her family history includes diabetes mellitus and cancer, including a sister who recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which factors place her in a high-risk category?
Drug/alcohol use, age, and family history.
Blood pressure, age, and BMI.
Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse.
Age, BMI, and family history.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Drug/alcohol use: While substance abuse during pregnancy can lead to adverse outcomes such as preterm labor, fetal growth restriction, and birth defects, it is not considered a primary factor in determining high-risk status for this patient. The specific substances involved (cocaine and alcohol) are indeed associated with risks, but they are not as significant as other factors in this case.
Age: The patient's age of 24 is not considered a high-risk factor for pregnancy. Advanced maternal age (typically defined as 35 years or older) is associated with increased risks for chromosomal abnormalities and other complications, but this patient falls below that age threshold.
Family history: Family history of diabetes mellitus, cancer, and neural tube defects can be relevant to pregnancy risk, but in this case, other factors outweigh their significance.
Choice B rationale:
Blood pressure: The patient's blood pressure of 108/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not contribute to highrisk categorization. High blood pressure (hypertension) during pregnancy can lead to preeclampsia and other complications, but this patient does not present with hypertension.
Age: As explained in Choice A, the patient's age is not a high-risk factor.
BMI: A BMI of 17 is considered underweight, which can increase the risk of certain pregnancy complications such as preterm birth and low birth weight. However, in this case, other factors are more significant in determining high-risk status.
Choice C rationale:
Family history: The patient's family history of a neural tube defect (NTD) in a close relative is a significant risk factor for NTDs in her own pregnancy. NTDs are serious birth defects that affect the brain and spinal cord, and they can have lifelong implications for the child. This factor alone warrants a high-risk categorization.
BMI: The patient's underweight BMI of 17 further contributes to her high-risk status, as it can increase the likelihood of certain complications as mentioned earlier.
Drug/alcohol abuse: The patient's admission of cocaine and alcohol use, even if occasional, is a concerning factor for pregnancy. Cocaine, in particular, is a potent vasoconstrictor that can negatively impact fetal growth and development. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs), which can cause a range of physical, cognitive, and behavioral problems.
Choice D rationale:
Age: As explained previously, the patient's age is not a high-risk factor.
BMI: The patient's BMI is a contributing factor, but not the most significant one in this case.
Family history: The patient's family history is relevant, but the presence of a neural tube defect in a close relative is the most significant aspect of her family history in terms of pregnancy risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Urine output (UO) does not completely stop during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. While it is significantly reduced, some urine production still occurs. Complete cessation of urine output is known as anuria, which is a more severe condition and a medical emergency.
Anuria may occur in the most severe cases of acute renal failure, but it is not the defining characteristic of the oliguric phase.
It's crucial to distinguish between oliguria and anuria, as their management approaches differ significantly.
Choice B rationale:
During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours. This is the defining characteristic of this phase.
The decrease in urine output is due to damage to the kidneys' filtering units, known as nephrons. As a result, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products and excess fluids effectively from the blood, leading to their accumulation in the body.
This reduced urine output can lead to various complications, including fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and a buildup of waste products in the blood (uremia).
Choice C rationale:
Urine output (UO) is always measured during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. It is a vital clinical indicator to monitor the severity of kidney dysfunction and guide treatment decisions.
Accurate measurement of urine output is essential for assessing fluid balance, kidney function, and the effectiveness of treatment interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Urine output (UO) is not greater than 500 mL/24 hours during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. A urine output greater than 500 mL/24 hours would indicate a non-oliguric phase of acute renal failure or a potential recovery phase.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Amniocentesis is the most reliable and direct method to assess fetal lung maturity. It involves the extraction of a small sample of amniotic fluid from the amniotic sac, which surrounds the fetus in the uterus. This fluid contains various substances, including surfactant, which is a crucial substance produced by the fetal lungs that enables them to expand and function properly after birth.
By analyzing the levels of surfactant and other components in the amniotic fluid, clinicians can accurately determine the maturity of the fetal lungs. This information is essential in guiding decisions about potential delivery options, especially in cases of preterm labor or other complications that may necessitate early delivery.
Amniocentesis is generally considered a safe procedure, but it does carry some small risks, such as infection, bleeding, or amniotic fluid leakage. However, these risks are typically outweighed by the benefits of obtaining accurate information about fetal lung maturity when necessary.
Choice B rationale:
Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein that is found in the amniotic fluid and cervicovaginal secretions. Elevated levels of fFN in cervicovaginal secretions between 22 and 34 weeks of gestation can indicate an increased risk of preterm labor.
However, fFN testing is not a direct measure of fetal lung maturity. It is used primarily as a screening tool to assess the risk of preterm birth, not to determine the readiness of the fetal lungs for delivery.
Choice C rationale:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a prenatal diagnostic test that involves taking a small sample of chorionic villi, which are tiny finger-like projections of placental tissue. This test is typically performed earlier in pregnancy (between 10 and 13 weeks gestation) to diagnose genetic abnormalities in the fetus.
CVS is not used to assess fetal lung maturity. It does not provide any information about the development of the fetal lungs or their readiness for birth.
Choice D rationale:
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein produced by the fetal liver. Elevated levels of AFP in the maternal blood can indicate an increased risk of certain birth defects, such as neural tube defects.
AFP testing is not used to assess fetal lung maturity. It does not provide any information about the development of the fetal lungs or their readiness for birth.
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