Which of the following is true in regards to hyperopia?
Patient would be unable to pass the Snellen exam.
Difficulty seeing from far or at a distance.
Inability to see objects or letters close in range.
Patient most likely will pass the Rosenbaum chart.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Patients with hyperopia (farsightedness) are able to see distant objects clearly but may have difficulty focusing on near objects. They can pass the Snellen exam, which measures distance vision, but may struggle with close-up tasks.
Choice B rationale
Hyperopia involves difficulty seeing close objects, not distant ones. Therefore, patients with hyperopia would not have difficulty seeing from far or at a distance, making this statement incorrect.
Choice C rationale
Hyperopia, or farsightedness, is characterized by the inability to see objects or letters that are close in range. It occurs when the eye's shape causes light to focus behind the retina instead of directly on it, leading to blurred near vision. Corrective lenses can help focus light properly on the retina.
Choice D rationale
The Rosenbaum chart is used to assess near vision acuity, which would highlight issues with hyperopia. However, patients with hyperopia would pass the Snellen exam, which tests distance vision, but might struggle with the Rosenbaum chart. .
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Patches of eschar covering parts of the wound are characteristic of more advanced pressure ulcers, such as Stage III or IV, where necrotic tissue is present. Eschar is a dark, thick, leathery scab or crust that indicates deeper tissue damage and is not observed in Stage II pressure ulcers.
Choice B rationale
A Stage II pressure ulcer is characterized by partial thickness skin erosion with loss of the epidermis and dermis. It appears as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, indicating that the damage has not extended beyond these layers of skin.
Choice C rationale
When a pressure ulcer extends into the subcutaneous tissue, it is classified as a Stage III or IV ulcer, depending on the depth and extent of tissue involvement. Stage II ulcers are limited to the epidermis and dermis and do not reach the subcutaneous layer.
Choice D rationale
Intact skin that appears red but is not broken is indicative of a Stage I pressure ulcer, which represents the earliest stage of pressure injury. Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable erythema (redness) but no open wound or skin erosion.
Choice E rationale
Open blister areas with a red-pink wound bed are characteristic of Stage II pressure ulcers. These ulcers exhibit partial thickness skin loss and can present as open or fluid-filled blisters with a visible wound bed.
Choice F rationale
Localized redness in light skin that blanches with fingertip pressure is typical of a Stage I pressure ulcer. Blanching erythema indicates that the skin is still viable and blood flow is present, which differentiates Stage I from more advanced stages of pressure injury.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave on an ECG, not the QRS wave. This phase involves the electrical activation and contraction of the atria, which precedes ventricular contraction.
Choice B rationale
Ventricular repolarization is represented by the T wave, not the QRS complex. The T wave signifies the ventricles returning to their resting state.
Choice C rationale
Atrial repolarization generally occurs during the QRS complex, but it is not represented by it. The electrical activity of atrial repolarization is masked by the more significant ventricular depolarization signal of the QRS complex.
Choice D rationale
The QRS complex on an ECG represents ventricular depolarization, which is the electrical activation leading to the contraction of the ventricles. This is the correct answer as it accurately describes the QRS wave’s significance. .
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