Which of the following is a common symptom of chronic aortic regurgitation?
Bradycardia
Abdominal pain
Exertional dyspnea
Peripheral edema
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Chronic aortic regurgitation typically does not cause bradycardia; the heart often compensates for the increased volume load by maintaining a normal or slightly elevated heart rate to preserve cardiac output.
B. This symptom is not characteristic of aortic regurgitation. Any abdominal discomfort in cardiac patients is more likely related to comorbidities or advanced heart failure affecting liver congestion, not the valve disease itself.
C. Chronic aortic regurgitation leads to volume overload of the left ventricle, causing left ventricular dilation and eventually increased pulmonary venous pressure. This results in left-sided heart failure symptoms, such as exertional dyspnea, fatigue, and decreased exercise tolerance, which often appear gradually as the disease progresses.
D. Typically associated with right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is not an early or primary symptom of isolated aortic regurgitation. It may appear only in advanced stages if biventricular failure develops.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. While adequate hydration is generally beneficial, pericarditis management does not typically require aggressive fluid intake, and overhydration could exacerbate complications, especially if there is concurrent heart failure.
B. This statement is not relevant to pericarditis, as having pericarditis does not necessitate avoidance of driving unless there are specific complications or comorbidities.
C. NSAIDs are used to reduce inflammation and pain in pericarditis; sexual activity is not contraindicated while on these medications unless the client is experiencing symptoms that limit activity.
D. This indicates understanding because chest pain can signify worsening pericarditis or complications such as cardiac tamponade or myocardial involvement, and prompt evaluation is necessary.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This is a long-term treatment for recurrent VT or other arrhythmias. It is not an immediate intervention for acute, unstable VT.
B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed only if the client is pulseless and unresponsive. While CPR may be necessary in cardiac arrest, it is not the first-line intervention for VT with a pulse.
C. Synchronized cardioversion is used for hemodynamically stable VT with a pulse, but the term “elective” implies a planned procedure, not emergency management.
D. For pulseless VT or VT causing severe instability (e.g., hypotension, altered mental status), defibrillation is the immediate lifesaving intervention. It delivers an unsynchronized shock to restore normal cardiac rhythm.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.