Which of the following assessment findings in a client who is receiving atenolol for angina would be a cause for the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

Recent intake of sildenafil

Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56

Restlessness and mild confusion

Positional vertigo and wheezing

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Recent intake of sildenafil:
While there is a potential drug interaction between atenolol (a beta-blocker) and sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction), this alone would not necessarily be an indication to hold atenolol. Sildenafil can cause hypotension, which might be exacerbated by atenolol, especially in older adults or those with cardiovascular issues. However, this interaction usually requires monitoring rather than immediate discontinuation of atenolol, unless the client is symptomatic (e.g., feeling faint, dizziness). If symptoms of hypotension occur after taking both medications, the nurse would assess the client's condition but would not automatically hold atenolol based solely on this information.

B. Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56: The most concerning finding in a client receiving atenolol (a beta-blocker) for angina is a heart rate of 52 beats per minute (bradycardia) and a blood pressure of 90/56 mmHg (hypotension). Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, work by reducing the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is below the typical threshold of 60 beats per minute and indicates bradycardia, which could worsen due to the medication's effects. Additionally, hypotension (blood pressure 90/56) can be dangerous, especially when combined with bradycardia. Both of these findings suggest that the client may be experiencing excessive beta-blockade, which could lead to severe complications such as cardiogenic shock or arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should hold the medication and contact the provider for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan.

C. Restlessness and mild confusion:
Restlessness and mild confusion could indicate several possible issues, such as hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. While beta-blockers can cause side effects like fatigue or depression, restlessness and confusion are not common acute reactions to atenolol. However, if these symptoms are due to hypotension or bradycardia from the atenolol, then holding the medication and notifying the provider may be warranted. Nonetheless, these symptoms alone are not a clear cause to immediately hold atenolol without further assessment.

D. Positional vertigo and wheezing:
Positional vertigo can occur due to a variety of causes, including inner ear issues, hypotension, or even medication side effects. Wheezing, however, raises concerns about potential bronchospasm, which is a known side effect of non-cardioselective beta-blockers. Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, meaning it is less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-cardioselective agents like propranolol. While wheezing could indicate a reaction to the medication, it is not a primary concern with atenolol, unless the client has a history of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). If wheezing occurs, the nurse should still monitor the client but would not necessarily hold atenolol immediately unless the symptoms are severe.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. In the prone position:
The prone position has been shown to be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, particularly in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), where it can help improve oxygenation by redistributing blood flow in the lungs. However, prone positioning is typically not the first choice for pneumonia, especially when it is localized to specific lobes of the lung. It is more commonly used in cases of diffuse bilateral lung injury or severe hypoxemia. Therefore, while prone positioning can improve oxygenation in ARDS, it is not specifically targeted for secretion removal in localized pneumonia.

B. In high-Fowler's position:
The high-Fowler's position (sitting up at a 60-90 degree angle) can help with dyspnea and promote lung expansion in conditions like heart failure or dyspneic states. However, for pneumonia, it is not as effective as lateral positioning for facilitating secretion drainage from specific lung lobes. The high-Fowler's position may be useful for promoting overall comfort and reducing dyspnea, but it is not the best position for improving secretion removal from the right middle and lower lobes.

C. On the left side:
Positioning the patient on the left side is not ideal for right middle and lower lobe pneumonia, as it would not optimize drainage from the affected lobes. The right middle and lower lobes are better drained when the patient is positioned on the right side, as gravity can help move the secretions from the affected lobes toward the larger airways for easier clearance.

D. On the right side: In the case of right middle and lower lobe pneumonia, positioning the client on the right side can help optimize ventilation and promote better secretion removal from the affected areas of the lung. This position allows gravity to assist in draining secretions from the right middle and lower lobes toward the larger airways, where they can be more easily cleared by coughing or suctioning. This positioning can improve oxygenation and facilitate secretion management, which is crucial for improving respiratory function in pneumonia.

A. Call for the rapid response team and request a portable chest X-ray B. Turn the suction drainage system off and auscultate breath sounds C. Apply a sterile dressing and tape on three sides D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Call for the rapid response team and request a portable chest X-ray: While calling for assistance and obtaining a chest X-ray is important for further assessment, the immediate priority is to secure the wound to prevent air from entering the pleural space. This action will help stabilize the patient until the rapid response team arrives and the X-ray can be performed.

B. Turn the suction drainage system off and auscultate breath sounds: Turning off the suction and auscultating breath sounds may be necessary after the wound is secured, but these actions should not take priority over sealing the chest tube site. The focus at this moment is to prevent a tension pneumothorax by sealing the dislodged chest tube site. Auscultation of breath sounds is useful afterward to assess for respiratory complications, but it is not the first action to take.

C. Apply a sterile dressing and tape on three sides: The first action when a chest tube becomes accidentally dislodged is to seal the opening to prevent air from entering the pleural space, which could lead to a pneumothorax (collapsed lung). Applying a sterile dressing and taping it on three sides helps create a temporary one-way valve effect, allowing air to escape from the pleural space but preventing further air from being drawn in. This intervention is crucial to stabilize the patient while awaiting further evaluation and intervention.

D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately: Notifying the healthcare provider is essential, but it is not the first action. The most important initial step is to seal the chest tube site to prevent further complications. After the dressing is applied, the nurse can then notify the healthcare provider and continue to monitor the patient.

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Which of the following assessment findings in a client who is receiving atenolol for angina would be a cause for the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory failure as a result of right middle and lower lobe pneumonia. To optimize ventilation and secretion removal the nurse should position the client:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

What is the first action the nurse should take with the accidental dislodgement of a chest tube?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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