Which of the following assessment findings in a client who is receiving atenolol for angina would be a cause for the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

Recent intake of sildenafil

Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56

Restlessness and mild confusion

Positional vertigo and wheezing

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Recent intake of sildenafil:
While there is a potential drug interaction between atenolol (a beta-blocker) and sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction), this alone would not necessarily be an indication to hold atenolol. Sildenafil can cause hypotension, which might be exacerbated by atenolol, especially in older adults or those with cardiovascular issues. However, this interaction usually requires monitoring rather than immediate discontinuation of atenolol, unless the client is symptomatic (e.g., feeling faint, dizziness). If symptoms of hypotension occur after taking both medications, the nurse would assess the client's condition but would not automatically hold atenolol based solely on this information.

B. Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56: The most concerning finding in a client receiving atenolol (a beta-blocker) for angina is a heart rate of 52 beats per minute (bradycardia) and a blood pressure of 90/56 mmHg (hypotension). Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, work by reducing the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is below the typical threshold of 60 beats per minute and indicates bradycardia, which could worsen due to the medication's effects. Additionally, hypotension (blood pressure 90/56) can be dangerous, especially when combined with bradycardia. Both of these findings suggest that the client may be experiencing excessive beta-blockade, which could lead to severe complications such as cardiogenic shock or arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should hold the medication and contact the provider for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan.

C. Restlessness and mild confusion:
Restlessness and mild confusion could indicate several possible issues, such as hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. While beta-blockers can cause side effects like fatigue or depression, restlessness and confusion are not common acute reactions to atenolol. However, if these symptoms are due to hypotension or bradycardia from the atenolol, then holding the medication and notifying the provider may be warranted. Nonetheless, these symptoms alone are not a clear cause to immediately hold atenolol without further assessment.

D. Positional vertigo and wheezing:
Positional vertigo can occur due to a variety of causes, including inner ear issues, hypotension, or even medication side effects. Wheezing, however, raises concerns about potential bronchospasm, which is a known side effect of non-cardioselective beta-blockers. Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, meaning it is less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-cardioselective agents like propranolol. While wheezing could indicate a reaction to the medication, it is not a primary concern with atenolol, unless the client has a history of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). If wheezing occurs, the nurse should still monitor the client but would not necessarily hold atenolol immediately unless the symptoms are severe.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Muscle rigidity and bradykinesia: Parkinson's disease (PD) is characterized by a combination of motor symptoms due to the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. The hallmark motor symptoms include muscle rigidity (stiffness of muscles, making movement difficult) and bradykinesia (slowness of movement). These symptoms are typically present early in the disease and can lead to difficulties with daily activities such as walking, speaking, and performing fine motor tasks. These two signs are primary indicators of Parkinson's disease.

B. Facial pain and ptosis: Facial pain and ptosis (drooping eyelids) are not typical symptoms of Parkinson's disease. PD can affect facial expression (resulting in a masked face), but it does not usually cause facial pain. Ptosis is more commonly seen in conditions like Horner's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, or as a side effect of medications, but it is not a hallmark symptom of Parkinson's disease.

C. Diarrhea and nausea: While gastrointestinal symptoms such as constipation can be seen in Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction and decreased gut motility, diarrhea and nausea are not typical primary symptoms. In fact, constipation is a more common issue in PD. Nausea could result from the use of medications like levodopa, but it is not a defining feature of the disease itself.

D. Ecchymosis and petechiae: Ecchymosis (bruising) and petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin) are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease. These findings are more often associated with platelet disorders, bleeding disorders, or vascular conditions. While Parkinson's disease can involve complications like falls (which could lead to bruising), these are not direct symptoms of the disease itself. The primary symptoms involve motor and autonomic dysfunction.

A. reports taking an extra dose each day of their anticholinesterase medication. B. is experiencing a respiratory infection and is short of breath. C. has a family history of autoimmune disorders. D. has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "Reports taking an extra dose each day of their anticholinesterase medication."
This client is at highest risk for developing a cholinergic crisis. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overdose or excessive stimulation of acetylcholine receptors due to too much anticholinesterase medication. Symptoms include muscle weakness, respiratory distress, salivation, sweating, and bradycardia. Taking an extra dose of the medication can result in an overdose of acetylcholine, triggering these symptoms. Therefore, this client is at the greatest risk for a cholinergic crisis.

B. "Is experiencing a respiratory infection and is short of breath."
While respiratory infections can worsen symptoms of myasthenia gravis due to increased muscle weakness, this client is not directly at risk for a cholinergic crisis. Respiratory infections can increase the risk of myasthenic crisis, which is a different complication where muscle weakness worsens to the point of respiratory failure. A myasthenic crisis is caused by insufficient anticholinesterase medication or a disease exacerbation, not an overdose.

C. "Has a family history of autoimmune disorders."
A family history of autoimmune disorders may suggest a genetic predisposition to autoimmune diseases, but it does not increase the risk of a cholinergic crisis specifically. The risk of a cholinergic crisis is more directly related to medication management, not family history.

D. "Has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus."
Type 2 diabetes mellitus does not directly increase the risk of a cholinergic crisis. While diabetes may influence overall health and immune function, it does not have a direct impact on anticholinesterase therapy or the risk of cholinergic crisis in myasthenia gravis.

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Which of the following assessment findings in a client who is receiving atenolol for angina would be a cause for the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

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