Which of the following are manifestations of obstructive sleep apnea? (Select all that apply.)
(Select All that Apply.)
Easily getting back to sleep after awakening
Many episodes of apnea per night
Loud snort after breathing cessation
10 seconds or longer of breathing cessation 10 seconds or longer of breathing cessation
Daytime sleepiness
Frequent, loud snoring
Correct Answer : B,C,D,E,F
Choice A Reason:
Easily getting back to sleep after awakening is incorrect. This is not typically a manifestation of obstructive sleep apnea. Instead, individuals with OSA often experience fragmented sleep due to frequent awakenings caused by apnea episodes.
Choice B Reason:
Many episodes of apnea per night is correct. Yes, individuals with obstructive sleep apnea experience many episodes of apnea (complete cessation of breathing) or hypopnea (partial obstruction of airflow) per night. These episodes can occur multiple times throughout the night, disrupting normal sleep patterns.
Choice C Reason:
Loud snort after breathing cessation is correct. This is a characteristic manifestation of obstructive sleep apnea. Individuals with OSA often make choking, snorting, or gasping sounds after a period of breathing cessation as they attempt to resume breathing.
Choice D Reason:
10 seconds or longer of breathing cessation is correct. Yes, breathing cessation episodes in obstructive sleep apnea typically last for 10 seconds or longer. These prolonged episodes of apnea contribute to oxygen desaturation and disrupted sleep.
Choice E Reason:
Daytime sleepiness is correct. Yes, daytime sleepiness is a common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea. Disrupted sleep patterns and frequent awakenings during the night can lead to excessive daytime sleepiness, fatigue, and decreased alertness.
Choice F Reason:
Frequent, loud snoring is correct. Yes, frequent, loud snoring is a hallmark symptom of obstructive sleep apnea. Snoring occurs due to the partial obstruction of airflow in the upper airway during sleep.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Muscle strength is correct. Assessing muscle strength is essential to determine if there are any neurological deficits or weakness that could indicate a neurological condition or injury. Sudden falls can be indicative of various neurological issues, such as stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Assessing muscle strength helps identify any motor impairments or weakness that could contribute to the fall.
Choice B Reason:
Facial symmetry is correct. Assessing facial symmetry is crucial to identify any signs of facial droop, which could indicate a neurological deficit such as a stroke or Bell's palsy. Facial asymmetry may suggest damage to the facial nerve or other neurological issues.
Choice C Reason:
Peripheral pulses is incorrect. While assessing peripheral pulses is important for evaluating circulation, it may not be the priority assessment in this scenario where the client has suddenly fallen and may be experiencing neurological symptoms. Neurological deficits, such as weakness or changes in facial symmetry, vision, or speech, are more indicative of acute neurological issues like stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), which require immediate attention and intervention. In emergency situations, prioritizing assessments related to potential life-threatening conditions such as neurological deficits takes precedence over assessing peripheral pulses.
Choice D Reason:
Vision changes is correct. Assessing for vision changes is important to identify any visual disturbances or deficits that could contribute to falls or indicate underlying neurological issues such as a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Visual disturbances may include blurriness, double vision, or loss of vision in one or both eyes.
Choice E Reason:
Aphasia is incorrect. Assessing for aphasia, which is the inability to understand or express speech, is essential to identify any language deficits that could indicate a neurological condition such as a stroke. Aphasia may present as difficulty speaking, understanding language, or both.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.

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