Which laboratory results should the nurse closely monitor in a client who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?
Blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature.
Leukocytes, neutrophils, and thyroxine.
Serum potassium, calcium, and phosphorus.
Erythrocytes, hemoglobin, and hematocrit.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are vital signs that should be monitored in any client, but they are not laboratory results. ESRD can cause hypertension and cardiovascular complications, so blood pressure and heart rate should be controlled with medications and lifestyle modifications. Temperature should be monitored for signs of infection or inflammation.
Choice B reason: Leukocytes, neutrophils, and thyroxine are not specific laboratory results for ESRD. Leukocytes and neutrophils are types of white blood cells that indicate immune system activity and infection. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that regulates metabolism and growth. ESRD can affect the immune system and the thyroid function, but these are not the primary indicators of renal function.
Choice C reason: This is the correct answer because serum potassium, calcium, and phosphorus are important laboratory results for ESRD. ESRD can cause electrolyte imbalances that can affect the heart, muscles, nerves, and bones. Serum potassium can increase due to reduced renal excretion and cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Serum calcium can decrease due to impaired absorption and activation of vitamin D and cause muscle cramps, tetany, and osteoporosis. Serum phosphorus can increase due to reduced renal excretion and cause soft tissue calcification and bone pain.
Choice D reason: Erythrocytes, hemoglobin, and hematocrit are laboratory results that measure red blood cell count, oxygen-carrying capacity, and blood volume. ESRD can cause anemia due to reduced production of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell formation in the bone marrow. Anemia can cause fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, and chest pain. However, these are not the most significant laboratory results for ESRD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking metformin with the morning and evening meal is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can improve the absorption and effectiveness of metformin and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Therefore, this is a correct choice.
Choice B reason: Using sliding scale insulin for frequent blood glucose elevations is not a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this is not recommended for clients with type 2 DM who are taking metformin. This can cause hypoglycemia and complicate the management of blood glucose levels. This is an incorrect choice.
Choice C reason: Recognizing signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can help the client identify and treat low blood glucose levels, which can occur with metformin use or other factors such as exercise, fasting, or alcohol intake. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice D reason: Reporting persistent polyuria to the health care provider is a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can indicate poor glycemic control or a complication of DM such as diabetic ketoacidosis or nephropathy. Therefore, this is another correct choice.
Choice E reason: Taking an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia is not a correct statement for the nurse to include, as this can cause overdose or toxicity of metformin, which can lead to lactic acidosis and renal failure. This is another incorrect choice.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Keeping the bed in the lowest position and initiating seizure and fall precautions is not an immediate action for the nurse to take. Seizure and fall precautions are measures that prevent injury or harm to the client in case of a seizure or a fall. Seizure and fall precautions include lowering the bed, padding the side rails, removing any objects that may cause injury, and having suction and oxygen equipment ready. However, these precautions are not specific to the client's condition and do not address the underlying cause.
Choice B reason: Placing an indwelling urinary catheter and measuring strict intake and output is not an urgent action for the nurse to take. An indwelling urinary catheter is a tube that drains urine from the bladder into a collection bag. Measuring intake and output is a way of monitoring fluid balance and kidney function. However, these interventions are not essential for the client's condition and may increase the risk of infection or trauma.
Choice C reason: Maintaining elevated positioning of the dependent joints on affected side is not a relevant action for the nurse to take. Dependent joints are joints that are below the level of the heart, such as the ankles or wrists. Elevating dependent joints can help reduce swelling or pain by improving blood flow and drainage. However, this intervention is not related to the client's condition and does not improve neurological function.
Choice D reason: This is the correct answer because starting two large bore IV catheters and reviewing inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is a critical action for the nurse to take. IV catheters are devices that allow access to the bloodstream for fluid or medication administration. Fibrinolytic therapy is a treatment that dissolves blood clots that may block blood flow to vital organs, such as the brain or heart. The client's symptoms suggest a possible stroke, which is a medical emergency that occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted, causing brain tissue damage or death. The nurse should start two large bore IV catheters in case one fails or becomes occluded, and review inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy, such as onset of symptoms, blood pressure, blood glucose, coagulation status, and history of bleeding or trauma, to determine if the client is eligible for this potentially life-saving treatment.
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