Which information about a patient who has a new prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin) indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before administration of the medication?
Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results
Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg.
Patient experiences an aura before seizures.
Patient has tonic-clonic seizures.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results: Phenytoin is primarily metabolized by the liver, and elevated liver function tests may indicate impaired liver function, potentially affecting the metabolism and clearance of phenytoin. Consultation with the healthcare provider is warranted to assess the risk-benefit ratio of administering phenytoin in the presence of liver function abnormalities.
B. Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg: While hypertension is not a contraindication for phenytoin administration, it is important to monitor blood pressure, especially considering the potential cardiovascular side effects of the medication. However, elevated blood pressure alone does not typically warrant consultation before administering phenytoin.
C. Patient experiences an aura before seizures: Experiencing an aura before seizures is a common phenomenon in patients with epilepsy and does not necessarily contraindicate the use of phenytoin. In fact, phenytoin is commonly prescribed to prevent seizures, including those preceded by an aura.
D. Patient has tonic-clonic seizures: Phenytoin is indicated for the treatment and prevention of tonic-clonic seizures, among other seizure types. Therefore, the presence of tonic-clonic seizures would not typically warrant consultation before administering phenytoin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 144/90 mm Hg: While elevated blood pressure may contribute to the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage, the patient's current BP is not excessively high and may not be the most critical factor in this situation compared to other factors such as anticoagulant use.
B. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension: While the patient's history of hypertension and diuretic use are relevant to their overall health status, they may not be the most immediate concern in the context of intracerebral hemorrhage.
C. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin): This information is crucial as it indicates that the patient is anticoagulated, which can significantly impact the severity and management of intracerebral hemorrhage. Anticoagulant use increases the risk of bleeding and can worsen outcomes in cases of intracranial hemorrhage.
D. The patient's speech is difficult to understand: While difficulty with speech may indicate neurological impairment, it is not as immediately concerning as the patient's anticoagulant use, which increases the risk of bleeding complications and may require specific interventions such as reversal agents.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A) Extension of the arms is incorrect because decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion into the body, not extension away from it.
- B) External rotation of the lower extremities is not associated with decorticate posturing, which involves movements primarily of the upper extremities.
- C) Pronation of the hands is incorrect as decorticate posturing typically involves flexion of the arms, wrists, and fingers into the chest.
- D) Plantar flexion of the legs is correct because decorticate posturing includes internal rotation and flexion of the arms and wrists, with the legs extended and feet plantar flexed.
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