Which information about a patient who has a new prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin) indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before administration of the medication?
Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results
Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg.
Patient experiences an aura before seizures.
Patient has tonic-clonic seizures.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results: Phenytoin is primarily metabolized by the liver, and elevated liver function tests may indicate impaired liver function, potentially affecting the metabolism and clearance of phenytoin. Consultation with the healthcare provider is warranted to assess the risk-benefit ratio of administering phenytoin in the presence of liver function abnormalities.
B. Patient's most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg: While hypertension is not a contraindication for phenytoin administration, it is important to monitor blood pressure, especially considering the potential cardiovascular side effects of the medication. However, elevated blood pressure alone does not typically warrant consultation before administering phenytoin.
C. Patient experiences an aura before seizures: Experiencing an aura before seizures is a common phenomenon in patients with epilepsy and does not necessarily contraindicate the use of phenytoin. In fact, phenytoin is commonly prescribed to prevent seizures, including those preceded by an aura.
D. Patient has tonic-clonic seizures: Phenytoin is indicated for the treatment and prevention of tonic-clonic seizures, among other seizure types. Therefore, the presence of tonic-clonic seizures would not typically warrant consultation before administering phenytoin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client can follow simple motor commands: A GCS score of 5 for the best motor response indicates that the client can localize pain but cannot follow simple motor commands. A score of 6 or higher is required to demonstrate following commands.
B. The client is unable to make vocal sound: A GCS score of 5 for the best verbal response indicates incomprehensible sounds or no verbal response. It does not specifically indicate the client's ability to vocalize or make sounds.
C. The client opens his eyes when spoken to: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening indicates no eye opening even to painful stimuli. It does not suggest that the client opens his eyes when spoken to.
D. The client is unconscious: A GCS score of 3 for eye opening, 5 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response indicates severe neurological impairment, with the client being unresponsive to stimuli and unable to follow commands. Therefore, the appropriate conclusion is that the client is unconscious.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Therapeutic effects of medications may not be seen for 2-3 weeks: While it is important for the client to understand the timeline for therapeutic effects, ensuring medication adherence, especially during the initial period when therapeutic effects are not yet apparent, is of higher priority.
B. Physical dependency may result from extended use of medications: While the potential for physical dependency is an important consideration, ensuring medication compliance and adherence to the prescribed regimen, particularly in the context of managing seizures, takes precedence.
C. Urine may turn pink to brown but is not harmful: While this information may be included in the education plan to address potential side effects of antiepileptic medications, it is not the highest priority compared to ensuring the client understands the importance of taking medication regularly.
D. Take medication even if there is no seizure activity: Ensuring consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing seizure disorders to maintain therapeutic blood levels of antiepileptic medications and reduce the risk of breakthrough seizures. Missing doses can increase the risk of seizure recurrence.
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