Which assessment is a nonverbal sign of pain? (Select all that apply.)
Increased agitation
Decreased attention span
Grimacing
Reported pain of 5/10
Increase in heart rate
Correct Answer : A,C,E
Choice A reason: Increased agitation is a nonverbal sign of pain, because it indicates that the client is restless, uncomfortable, or distressed by the pain. Agitation can manifest as fidgeting, tossing, turning, moaning, or groaning.
Choice B reason: Decreased attention span is not a nonverbal sign of pain, but rather a cognitive or behavioral sign of pain. Decreased attention span means that the client has difficulty focusing, concentrating, or remembering things, which can be affected by pain. However, decreased attention span is not a direct expression of pain, but rather a consequence of pain.
Choice C reason: Grimacing is a nonverbal sign of pain, because it indicates that the client is experiencing facial muscle tension, contraction, or distortion due to the pain. Grimacing can manifest as frowning, wrinkling the forehead, pursing the lips, or clenching the teeth.
Choice D reason: Reported pain of 5/10 is not a nonverbal sign of pain, but rather a verbal sign of pain. Reported pain of 5/10 means that the client has communicated the intensity of their pain using a numerical scale, which is a subjective and selfreported measure of pain. However, reported pain of 5/10 is not a direct expression of pain, but rather a description of pain.
Choice E reason: Increase in heart rate is a nonverbal sign of pain, because it indicates that the client is experiencing physiological changes due to the pain. Increase in heart rate can manifest as tachycardia, palpitations, or arrhythmias.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Wearing a gown is the correct answer, because it is the appropriate PPE for contact precautions, which are required for clients who have MRSA. MRSA is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics and can cause serious infections in the skin, blood, lungs, or other organs. MRSA can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact with the infected wound or contaminated surfaces. Wearing a gown can protect the nurse's clothing and skin from exposure to MRSA.
Choice B reason: Wearing sterile gloves is not the correct answer, because it is not the appropriate PPE for contact precautions, which are required for clients who have MRSA. Sterile gloves are used for sterile procedures, such as inserting a catheter or changing a dressing, not for routine assessments, such as checking the pulse. Wearing sterile gloves can be wasteful and unnecessary, and it does not provide adequate protection from MRSA.
Choice C reason: Wearing a PAPR mask is not the correct answer, because it is not the appropriate PPE for contact precautions, which are required for clients who have MRSA. PAPR stands for powered airpurifying respirator, and it is a type of mask that filters the air and provides positive pressure to the wearer. PAPR masks are used for airborne precautions, which are required for clients who have diseases that can be spread through the air, such as tuberculosis or measles, not for clients who have MRSA.
Choice D reason: Wearing a surgical mask is not the correct answer, because it is not the appropriate PPE for contact precautions, which are required for clients who have MRSA. Surgical masks are used for droplet precautions, which are required for clients who have diseases that can be spread through respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis, not for clients who have MRSA.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the priority assessment because peripheral edema is not a lifethreatening complication of immobility. Peripheral edema is the swelling of the lower extremities due to fluid accumulation. It can be caused by various factors, such as venous insufficiency, heart failure, kidney disease, or medication side effects. The nurse should monitor the client's fluid status and provide elevation and compression therapy as needed.
Choice B reason: This is the priority assessment because lung sounds can indicate the presence of respiratory complications, such as pneumonia or atelectasis, which are common and serious consequences of immobility. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that causes inflammation, mucus production, and impaired gas exchange. Atelectasis is the collapse of alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs that facilitate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. The nurse should auscultate the client's lung sounds regularly and report any abnormal findings, such as crackles, wheezes, or diminished breath sounds. The nurse should also encourage the client to cough, deep breathe, and use incentive spirometry to prevent or treat respiratory problems.
Choice C reason: This is not the priority assessment because bowel sounds can reflect the status of the gastrointestinal system, which is not directly affected by immobility. Bowel sounds are the noises produced by the movement of food and gas through the intestines. They can vary in frequency and intensity depending on the client's diet, activity, and medications. The nurse should auscultate the client's bowel sounds and assess for any signs of constipation, diarrhea, or obstruction. The nurse should also promote the client's bowel function by providing adequate hydration, fiber, and laxatives as ordered.
Choice D reason: This is not the priority assessment because skin turgor can indicate the level of hydration, which is not a primary concern of immobility. Skin turgor is the elasticity of the skin that allows it to return to its normal shape after being pinched or pulled. It can be affected by factors such as age, weight loss, dehydration, or edema. The nurse should assess the client's skin turgor and provide adequate fluids and electrolytes as needed. The nurse should also pay attention to the client's skin integrity and prevent or treat any pressure ulcers or wounds that may result from immobility.
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