Which assessment finding in a 36-year-old client is most indicative for further evaluation?

A breast lump that is small, mobile and rubbery in consistency.

A breast nodule that is 1 cm in size, nontender, and fixed.

Bilateral breast nodules that are tender with palpation.

A breast lump that increases in size before the menstrual period.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. A small, mobile, rubbery lump is often benign, such as a fibroadenoma.

B. A nontender, fixed breast nodule is concerning for malignancy, and further evaluation is necessary, such as imaging or biopsy.

C. Tender, bilateral nodules are commonly seen in benign conditions like fibrocystic breast changes, especially related to the menstrual cycle.

D. A lump that changes in size before menstruation is also typical of benign conditions like fibrocystic changes.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Increasing IV fluids would exacerbate the client's fluid overload and worsen heart failure symptoms.

B. Trendelenburg positioning is typically used for shock management, but this client’s fluid overload needs to be addressed first.

C. Monitoring is important but does not address the immediate need to manage fluid overload.

D. The client's elevated CVP, PAWP, and BNP levels indicate fluid overload and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. The priority is to reduce fluid overload by administering IV diuretics, which will help reduce the pressure in the heart and lungs, improving oxygenation and decreasing the risk of pulmonary edema.

A. It must be taken on an empty stomach. B. It must not be handled by pregnant women. C. It is given deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation. D. The client needs to be warned that hair loss is a common adverse effect.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Finasteride does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

B. Finasteride can cause harm to a developing male fetus, and pregnant women should avoid handling it to prevent potential absorption through the skin.

C. Finasteride is an oral medication and is not administered as an intramuscular injection.

D. Hair loss is not a common adverse effect of finasteride; in fact, it is used to treat hair loss in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

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Which assessment finding in a 36-year-old client is most indicative for further evaluation?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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