When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nausea.

Stridor.

Headache.

Pruritus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections: Simvastatin is a medication used primarily to manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Frequent vaginal infections are not directly related to cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, this client is unlikely to benefit from education about simvastatin.
B) A 50-year-old male with a history of angina: Simvastatin is a statin medication prescribed to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Since angina is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a condition often related to high cholesterol levels, this client would benefit from education about simvastatin, which can help manage cholesterol and potentially reduce cardiovascular risk.
C) An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus: Statins, including simvastatin, are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. Additionally, this client’s primary condition of type 1 diabetes mellitus would not typically be managed with simvastatin alone. Therefore, this client is not the target for simvastatin education.
D) A 75-year-old male with bone cancer: While simvastatin is used for managing cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events, bone cancer is not directly related to cholesterol levels. The primary focus for this client would be managing cancer-related symptoms and treatments rather than cholesterol levels. Thus, this client would not benefit from education about simvastatin.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Expresses that they cannot get enough air to breathe: While this is concerning, it is less specific than a respiratory rate finding for opioid overdose.
B. Respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute: This indicates severe respiratory depression, a critical sign of opioid overdose, which necessitates immediate administration of naloxone.
C. Intercostal retractions and bilateral wheezing on auscultation: These signs suggest respiratory distress but do not directly indicate an opioid overdose.
D. Pulse oximeter reading of 89% on room air: While low, this reading does not specifically indicate opioid overdose unless accompanied by respiratory depression.

A. Maintain a cool, calm room environment. B. Provide the client with a soft toothbrush. C. Allow the client ample rest periods. D. Keep the head of the bed elevated.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Maintain a cool, calm room environment: While a calm environment can be beneficial for overall patient well-being, it is not specifically related to the care of a client on clopidogrel. This instruction does not address the direct needs or precautions associated with clopidogrel use.
B) Provide the client with a soft toothbrush: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. To minimize gum bleeding and oral mucosal damage, it is crucial to use a soft toothbrush to prevent injury. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bleeding complications associated with the medication.
C) Allow the client ample rest periods: While rest is important for overall health, it is not specifically related to the precautions needed for a client on clopidogrel. The primary concern with clopidogrel is managing bleeding risks rather than providing rest.
D) Keep the head of the bed elevated: Elevating the head of the bed is generally useful for managing certain conditions like respiratory issues or gastrointestinal reflux but does not directly relate to the specific needs of a client taking clopidogrel. The focus for clients on clopidogrel should be on preventing bleeding complications.

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When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to administer a prescribed PRN dose of naloxone?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which instruction should the nurse provide an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is assisting with the personal care of a client receiving clopidogrel?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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