When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nausea.

Stridor.

Headache.

Pruritus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections: Simvastatin is a medication used primarily to manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Frequent vaginal infections are not directly related to cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, this client is unlikely to benefit from education about simvastatin.
B) A 50-year-old male with a history of angina: Simvastatin is a statin medication prescribed to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Since angina is a symptom of coronary artery disease, a condition often related to high cholesterol levels, this client would benefit from education about simvastatin, which can help manage cholesterol and potentially reduce cardiovascular risk.
C) An 18-year-old pregnant female with type 1 diabetes mellitus: Statins, including simvastatin, are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. Additionally, this client’s primary condition of type 1 diabetes mellitus would not typically be managed with simvastatin alone. Therefore, this client is not the target for simvastatin education.
D) A 75-year-old male with bone cancer: While simvastatin is used for managing cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events, bone cancer is not directly related to cholesterol levels. The primary focus for this client would be managing cancer-related symptoms and treatments rather than cholesterol levels. Thus, this client would not benefit from education about simvastatin.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Administer the medication: Acarbose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that should be taken with the first bite of a meal to effectively manage postprandial blood glucose levels. Administering it before the meal is inappropriate as it can lead to inadequate glucose control.
B. Notify the healthcare provider: While notifying the healthcare provider might be necessary if there are significant issues, it is not the immediate action needed in this situation. The priority is to manage the timing of the medication relative to the meal.
C. Hold the medication until the meal trays arrive: Acarbose should be taken with food to work effectively in controlling blood glucose levels after meals. If the meal is delayed, the medication should be held until the meal is ready to ensure proper administration.
D. Obtain another finger stick blood glucose level: Rechecking the blood glucose level does not address the issue of the timing of the acarbose administration. The focus should be on ensuring the medication is taken with the meal.

A. Platelet count of 100,000/mm3 (100 x 10 B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL (7.) mmol/L). C. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 μmol/L). D. Hematocrit 45% (0.45 volume fraction).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ (100 x 10^9/L): Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can be a serious adverse effect of anticoagulant therapy. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is below the normal range (150,000 to 400,000/mm³) and indicates potential thrombocytopenia, which could increase the risk of bleeding and may warrant immediate action.

B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L): This BUN level is at the upper limit of normal but does not typically require immediate action unless there are other symptoms or significant changes in kidney function.

C. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 μmol/L): This value is within the normal range for serum creatinine and does not indicate an immediate concern related to enoxaparin.

D. Hematocrit 45% (0.45 volume fraction): This hematocrit level is within the normal range and does not typically require immediate action.

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When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

When preparing to apply a scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch, the nurse notes that the previously applied patch is intact on the client's upper back and the client denies pain. Which action should the nurse take?

An increase in which serum lab value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?

A client receives a prescription for allopurinol. Which information provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?

A client with a history of angina reports the onset of chest pain. The nurse determines that the heart rate is 104 beats/minute and the blood pressure is 138/86 mm Hg. A transdermal nitroglycerin patch was applied 30 minutes ago to the right upper chest. Which action should the nurse take?

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving calcium acetate 667 mg PO. A decrease in which blood value indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?

The healthcare provider prescribes the antibiotic tetracycline HCl for an adult client that arrived at an outpatient clinic. Which instruction should the nurse Include in the teaching plan for this client?

The nurse is assessing the eyes of a client who just received mydriatic eye drops. Which physiological function of the eye will not respond during the therapuetic period after administration of the eye drops?

A client is receiving IV vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the medication. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?