A client is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client’s history requires follow up by the nurse?

CT scan that was performed six months earlier.

Takes metformin hydrochloride for type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Report of client’s sobriety for the last five years.

Metal hip prosthesis was placed twenty years ago.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) CT scan that was performed six months earlier: A previous CT scan performed six months earlier does not necessarily require follow-up by the nurse. However, it would be important to review the results of the previous CT scan to compare findings and assess for any changes over time.

B) Takes metformin hydrochloride for type 2 diabetes mellitus: This is the correct answer. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and contrast media used in CT scans can potentially cause kidney damage, particularly in clients with pre-existing renal impairment. Therefore, clients taking metformin may be at increased risk of developing lactic acidosis if renal function is compromised. It is essential for the nurse to follow up on this information and coordinate with the healthcare provider to determine whether metformin should be temporarily discontinued before the CT scan and when it can be safely resumed.

C) Report of client’s sobriety for the last five years: The client’s sobriety status for the last five years is not directly relevant to the CT scan with contrast for evaluating pulmonary embolism. While substance use history is important for overall health assessment, it does not specifically require follow-up related to the CT scan.

D) Metal hip prosthesis was placed twenty years ago: The presence of a metal hip prosthesis placed twenty years ago may be relevant for certain imaging studies, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) MRI, but it is not directly related to the CT scan with contrast for pulmonary embolism evaluation. Therefore, it does not require immediate follow-up by the nurse in this context.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Hold the dose and notify the pharmacy to stop dispensing the next premixed doses: This action may prevent further administration of fluconazole, but it does not address the underlying concern of rising liver enzyme levels. Holding the dose and notifying the healthcare provider directly would be more appropriate.

B) Hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider of the changes in the laboratory studies: This is the correct response. RisIng liver enzyme levels, indIcated by an increasing trend in aspartate aminotransferase (AST), suggest potential liver dysfunction or damage, which can be a serious adverse effect of fluconazole. The nurse should hold the dose and promptly inform the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

C) Begin the infusion and monitor the client's bl’od urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests: Initiating the infusion without addressing the rising liver enzyme levels could potentially worsen liver function. It is essential to hold the dose and inform the healthcare provider before proceeding with further administration.

D) Begin the infusion and submit a drug reaction report to the nursing supervisor: While it's im’ortant to document adverse reactions and submit reports as appropriate, the priority in this situation is to hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider to address the rising liver enzyme levels.

A. Use a twice a week dosing schedule. B. Take the medication early in the day. C. Stand and sit up slowly. D. Reduce daily fluid intake.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Tamsulosin is typically administered once daily, not on a twice-weekly dosing schedule. Instructing the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing frequency is essential for maintaining therapeutic blood levels of the medication and optimizing its effectiveness in managing urinary retention associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

B) While the timing of medication administration can impact its effectiveness, taking tamsulosin early in the day versus later in the day may not significantly affect its therapeutic action. The key consideration with tamsulosin is to maintain consistency in timing to ensure a steady plasma concentration of the drug.

C) Instructing the client to stand and sit up slowly is crucial because tamsulosin, as an alpha-blocker, can cause orthostatic hypotension, especially when first starting the medication or when increasing the dosage. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent falls and dizziness, which are common side effects associated with sudden drops in blood pressure.

D) Reducing daily fluid intake is not advisable, especially for a client with urinary retention. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential for overall health and urinary function. Tamsulosin works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck, facilitating urine flow, but it does not directly affect fluid intake requirements.

Therefore, the most important instruction for the nurse to provide is to stand and sit up slowly to minimize the risk of orthostatic hypotension and associated complications.

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A client is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client’s history requires follow up by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is administering IV fluconazole to a client who has systemic candidiasis. After reviewing the client's di’gnostic studies, the nurse identifies a rising trend in the liver enzyme levels for aspartate aminotransferase (AST). Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is receiving tamsulosin for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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