When administering an opioid antagonist drug to a client, the primary goal of the therapy is to provide:

A return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth.

Management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

A reduction in the client's rating of their pain.

Alertness and improve memory function.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. A return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth is correct because opioid antagonists, such as naloxone, are primarily used to reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

B. Management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms is incorrect; opioid antagonists do not address alcohol withdrawal.

C. A reduction in the client's rating of their pain is incorrect; opioid antagonists counteract the effects of opioids, which can result in increased pain levels rather than reduction.

D. Alertness and improve memory function is incorrect; while opioid antagonists may improve alertness by reversing sedation, the primary goal focuses on restoring respiratory function.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Maintain good oral hygiene to minimize dry mouth is correct; good oral hygiene practices can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect.

B. Void before taking the medication so urinary hesitation is less problematic is correct; this strategy can help manage urinary retention, another potential side effect of tricyclic antidepressants.

C. Avoid situations where bruising or lacerations are a possibility is incorrect; while caution is always advisable, this statement does not directly relate to anticholinergic effects.

D. Eat several small meals daily rather than three larger meals is correct; smaller meals can help mitigate gastrointestinal side effects and maintain steady blood sugar levels.

E. Use caution in situations where it may be possible to become overheated is correct; anticholinergic medications can impair thermoregulation, increasing the risk of heat-related illnesses.

A. Suspect an allergic reaction and administer antihistamines. B. Suspect a bleeding complication and notify the healthcare provider. C. Suspect a hypersensitivity reaction and discontinue the heparin immediately. D. Suspect an infection and initiate antibiotic therapy.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Bruising and bleeding gums are not indicative of an allergic reaction, which would typically present with different symptoms such as rash, itching, or swelling. Administering antihistamines would not address the underlying issue.

B. The development of bruising and bleeding gums in a patient on heparin therapy suggests a bleeding complication, which is a known risk of anticoagulation therapy. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to assess the situation and possibly adjust treatment or perform further evaluations.

C. While hypersensitivity reactions can occur with medications, the symptoms presented here are more aligned with bleeding complications than with hypersensitivity. Discontinuing heparin without consulting the provider could put the patient at risk for thromboembolic events.

D. The symptoms do not indicate an infection; therefore, initiating antibiotic therapy would not be appropriate in this context.

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When administering an opioid antagonist drug to a client, the primary goal of the therapy is to provide:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant and the nurse recognizes the client's associated risk for anticholinergic effects. What should the nurse teach the client about preventing and managing these adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A patient receiving heparin therapy develops bruising and bleeding gums. What should the nurse suspect and what is the appropriate action?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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