When a nurse responds to a client's call light, the client tells the nurse that his watch is missing.
He states that he left it in the drawer of his bedside table, and now it is not there.
Later, the nurse sees an assistive personnel (AP) taking a man's watch from her pocket and putting it in her purse.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Report the observation to the immediate supervisor.
Confront the AP about her theft of the client's watch.
Tell the client that the AP took his watch.
Call security before the AP leaves the building.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Reporting the observation to the immediate supervisor is the most appropriate and ethical action. The nurse is a mandated reporter for such events within the healthcare setting. The supervisor, in their administrative role, is responsible for initiating a formal investigation into the matter, ensuring due process, and taking necessary disciplinary action according to institutional policy. This approach protects both the client and the nurse, who is acting on observed evidence, and maintains a chain of command.
Choice B rationale
Confronting the assistive personnel (AP) directly is an inappropriate and potentially unsafe action. This approach could escalate the situation, lead to a hostile confrontation, and create an unsafe work environment. The nurse's role is not to act as a law enforcement officer or to administer disciplinary action. The proper channel for addressing a suspected theft is through the established reporting structure, which involves informing the immediate supervisor. This maintains professional boundaries and ensures a fair and impartial investigation.
Choice C rationale
Telling the client that the assistive personnel (AP) took their watch is premature and unprofessional. The nurse has only observed the AP with a watch, but has not yet confirmed it is the client's. Making such an accusation directly to the client could be slanderous, cause emotional distress, and is not a factual statement. The proper procedure is to report the observation to the supervisor and allow the official investigation to proceed, which will determine the facts before any conclusions are drawn or communicated.
Choice D rationale
Calling security before the assistive personnel (AP) leaves the building is an excessive and premature action. The nurse's role is to report concerns to the immediate supervisor, who will then follow the proper institutional procedures, which may include contacting security if deemed necessary. Bypassing the chain of command and taking unilateral action could create a chaotic and unmanaged situation, potentially infringing on the AP's rights. The supervisor is the designated authority to manage such incidents and coordinate with other departments as needed. *.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A nonstress test (NST) does not require the client to fast. The client can eat and drink normally, and sometimes a sugary beverage is even encouraged to stimulate fetal movement, as the test aims to record fetal heart rate accelerations in response to these movements.
Choice B rationale
The nonstress test is a screening tool used to assess fetal well-being by measuring the fetal heart rate's response to fetal movement. It does not provide information about genetic problems, which are typically identified through genetic testing or prenatal diagnostic procedures such as amniocentesis.
Choice C rationale
A key component of the nonstress test involves the mother noting fetal movements. The client is given a marker, often a button, to press each time she feels the baby move. This action correlates the mother's perception of movement with the fetal heart rate accelerations recorded on the monitor.
Choice D rationale
Oxytocin is not administered during a nonstress test. The purpose of this test is to assess the baby's baseline heart rate and accelerations without external stimulation. Oxytocin is used in a contraction stress test, which is a different procedure to evaluate how the baby handles uterine contractions. *.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The ST segment represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarization. It is identified as the flat baseline following the QRS complex and preceding the T wave. This segment is isoelectric, meaning it's at the same level as the PR segment, and any deviation can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury.
Choice B rationale
The peak of the R wave represents the peak of ventricular depolarization. It signifies the moment of maximum electrical activity in the ventricles, as the impulse spreads through the ventricular walls. It is a critical point in the QRS complex, but it is not the location of the ST segment.
Choice C rationale
The beginning of the P wave marks the onset of atrial depolarization. This electrical event represents the contraction of the atria as they pump blood into the ventricles. The P wave is the first deflection in the cardiac cycle and occurs well before the QRS complex and the ST segment.
Choice D rationale
The interval between the S wave and the T wave is not a standard electrocardiographic term. The correct terminology is the ST segment, which is a segment, not an interval, and it specifically follows the S wave and precedes the T wave. An interval would typically include a wave, like the QT interval. *.
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