When a couple has unprotected sexual intercourse 3 days before the woman ovulates, the risk of the woman becoming pregnant is:

Very low because that is not the woman's fertile period.

Uncertain because the ovum lives only for 24 hours.

Unknown because the ovum lives only for 24 hours.

Very low because the woman may not ovulate at all.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. This statement is incorrect because sperm can survive inside the female reproductive tract for up to 5 days, meaning intercourse before ovulation can still result in pregnancy.

B. Uncertain is correct because while the egg does live only for about 24 hours after ovulation, sperm can survive for several days. Thus, intercourse 3 days before ovulation could still lead to pregnancy if sperm are still viable when the egg is released.

C. The ovum's survival time is generally known, so the risk is based on sperm viability and timing, not uncertainty about the egg.

D. While ovulation is necessary for conception, predicting it with certainty is not always possible, so this option is not entirely accurate.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Estrogen plays a role in the development of the uterus and regulation of menstrual cycles, but it does not primarily reduce uterine contractions.

B. Testosterone is a male hormone and does not play a significant role in preventing uterine contractions during pregnancy.

C. Aldosterone helps regulate fluid balance and blood pressure, but it is not responsible for reducing uterine contractions during pregnancy.

D. Progesterone is the hormone primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy by inhibiting uterine contractions, promoting uterine relaxation, and supporting the early stages of pregnancy. It plays a critical role in preventing spontaneous abortion, especially in early pregnancy.

A. "Don't worry, I will stay in there with you for the exam." B. "A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills.” C. "Tell me more about your concerns.” D. "All you need to do is relax during the exam.”

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Offering to stay with the client may be supportive, but it does not directly address the client’s expressed feelings or concerns, which is the priority in therapeutic communication.

B. Telling the client that the exam is necessary for birth control may seem dismissive and does not validate or explore her anxiety.

C. Encouraging the client to share more about her concerns is an appropriate therapeutic response. It allows the nurse to understand the client’s feelings, provide reassurance, and educate her about the procedure.

D. Advising the client to relax may come across as minimizing her feelings and does not provide an opportunity for the client to express her anxiety.

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When a couple has unprotected sexual intercourse 3 days before the woman ovulates, the risk of the woman becoming pregnant is:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which maternal hormone reduces uterine contractions to prevent spontaneous abortions?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a female client who is scheduled to have a pelvic examination. The client tells the nurse, "I'm really nervous because I've never had a pelvic exam before." Which of the following is an appropriate therapeutic response by the nurse?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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