The patient with restrictive cardiomyopathy asks the nurse what could have caused this disorder. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
"All patients with this disorder have a genetic defect which causes it."
"There are many theories about its development but amyloidosis in your history is a probable cause."
"You probably had a silent heart attack which caused this disorder."
"Your long-standing hypertension caused this disorder."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "All patients with this disorder have a genetic defect which causes it.": Restrictive cardiomyopathy is not primarily a genetic disorder. While there may be rare familial forms, most cases are acquired, often secondary to systemic diseases, making this statement inaccurate and misleading.
B. "There are many theories about its development but amyloidosis in your history is a probable cause.": This is the most accurate response. Restrictive cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with infiltrative diseases such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, and sarcoidosis, which impair ventricular filling due to stiff, non-compliant myocardium.
C. "You probably had a silent heart attack which caused this disorder.": Silent myocardial infarctions can contribute to ischemic cardiomyopathy, typically leading to dilated, not restrictive, changes in the myocardium. They are not a primary cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy.
D. "Your long-standing hypertension caused this disorder.": Chronic hypertension more commonly leads to left ventricular hypertrophy and may contribute to diastolic heart failure, but it is not a typical cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dehydration: The elevated hemoglobin (17 g/dL) and hematocrit (54%), along with an increased BUN (28 mg/dL) and normal creatinine, suggest hemoconcentration, a key indicator of dehydration. Small bowel obstruction often leads to fluid loss through vomiting and third spacing into the bowel, contributing to this condition.
B. Infection: The WBC count is normal at 8.5, which does not support an active infection. Infections typically result in leukocytosis (WBC >10.5), especially in acute abdominal conditions.
C. Renal insufficiency: Although BUN is elevated, creatinine remains normal (1.1 mg/dL). This pattern, particularly with hemoconcentration, supports pre-renal azotemia due to dehydration, not intrinsic renal insufficiency.
D. Internal bleeding: Internal bleeding typically causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit due to blood loss. The elevated values in this case rule out active bleeding and instead indicate fluid volume deficit.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Presence of fine tremors: Fine tremors are not a typical sign of worsening heart failure. They may be associated with medications (like bronchodilators or lithium), metabolic issues, or neurologic disorders, but not directly with heart failure decompensation.
B. Heart rate 50 per minute: Bradycardia may be notable, especially in the context of beta-blocker therapy, but a heart rate of 50 bpm in a stable patient is not necessarily a sign of worsening heart failure unless accompanied by symptoms like dizziness or hypotension.
C. +1 peripheral edema: Mild peripheral edema is often chronic and common in older adults with heart failure. It does not reliably indicate worsening status unless there is a significant increase in edema or associated weight gain and pulmonary symptoms.
D. Increased confusion: Older adults are more susceptible to changes in cognitive function due to decreased cardiac output in worsening heart failure. New or worsening confusion in older adults is a key sign of decreased cerebral perfusion and may signal worsening heart failure. It can also indicate hypoxia or electrolyte imbalance, making it a critical finding that warrants immediate evaluation.
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