The patient presents to the ED with severe chest discomfort. A cardiac catheterization and angiography shows an 90% occlusion of the left main coronary artery. Which procedure will be most likely performed on this patient?
Coronary artery bypass graft surgery
Radiofrequency catheter ablation
Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement
Circulatory assist device
The Correct Answer is A
A. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is typically recommended for patients with significant occlusion of the left main coronary artery, as it effectively restores blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing the blocked artery.
B. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is used to treat arrhythmias, not coronary artery occlusions.
C. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement is for managing life-threatening arrhythmias, not directly for treating coronary artery blockages.
D. A circulatory assist device is used in severe cases of heart failure, but it does not address the underlying issue of coronary artery occlusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Homocysteine is a marker for cardiovascular risk but is not used to monitor heart failure therapy.
B. LDL levels are associated with cholesterol management and do not directly reflect heart failure treatment effectiveness.
C. Troponin is a marker of myocardial injury, not heart failure severity.
D. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels correlate with the severity of heart failure and are used to monitor the effectiveness of heart failure therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so it would not cause hypokalemia.
B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the kidneys to excrete potassium, leading to hypokalemia.
C. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels.
D. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and does not affect potassium levels.
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