The nurse working in the psychiatric clinic has phone messages from several clients. Which call should the nurse return first?
A family member of a client with dementia who has been missing for five hours.
A client with schizophrenia who wants to stop taking the medications.
The parent of a child who was involved in a physical fight at school today.
A client diagnosed with depression who is experiencing sexual dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The immediate safety of the client is at risk. A person with dementia who is missing poses a potential danger to themselves due to confusion and the inability to navigate safely in their environment.
Choice B reason: While medication adherence is important for a client with schizophrenia, it does not present an immediate life-threatening situation. The nurse can return this call after addressing more urgent safety concerns.
Choice C reason: Physical altercations at school are serious, but if the child is safe and not in immediate danger, this call can be returned following more urgent issues.
Choice D reason: Sexual dysfunction can significantly affect quality of life, but it is not an immediate safety concern. This call should be returned after more urgent calls have been addressed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels, typically below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L). The client’s fasting blood glucose level is 122 mg/dL (6.8 mmol/L), which is above the normal range, thus ruling out hypoglycemia.
Choice B Reason: Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when the fasting blood glucose level is 126 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) or higher on two separate tests1. The client’s level is slightly below this threshold, suggesting that he does not currently have diabetes mellitus but is at risk.
Choice C Reason: Prediabetes is indicated by a fasting blood glucose level of 100 to 125 mg/dL (5.6 to 6.9 mmol/L)1. The client’s level falls within this range, indicating that he has higher than normal blood glucose levels but not high enough to be classified as diabetes, hence prediabetes.
Choice D Reason: Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not applicable to this male client.
Option i Reason: Fatty liver disease is not directly indicated by the laboratory results provided and is typically associated with elevated liver enzymes and imaging findings.
Option ii Reason: Occupational factors are not directly related to the fasting blood glucose levels.
Option iii Reason: Lack of insulin production is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes, which is not indicated by the client’s fasting blood glucose level alone.
Option iv Reason: Impaired glucose tolerance is a condition where blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes. It is a characteristic of prediabetes and is indicated by the client’s fasting blood glucose level.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Suggesting that delirium is often a sign of underlying mental illness and that institutionalization is necessary can be distressing and may not be accurate without further assessment.
Choice B reason: Stating that dementia due to Alzheimer's disease is often reversible even in the late stages is incorrect; Alzheimer's disease is a progressive condition with no current cure.
Choice C reason: Recognizing the possibility of delirium due to depression, which can be reversible, is a hopeful and constructive approach that encourages further evaluation and treatment options.
Choice D reason: Suggesting that symptoms of dementia are permanent because of age can be disheartening and does not consider the potential for reversible causes of cognitive impairment.
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