The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

Administer the dose and monitor the client's BP regularly.

Withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider.

Apply a telemetry monitor before administering the dose.

Assess for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: Administering the dose of labetalol without further assessment may not be appropriate in this situation. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, which is considered bradycardia (heart rate below the normal range of 60-100 beats/minute). Bradycardia can be a potential adverse effect of labetalol, a beta-blocker. Moreover, the client's blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, indicating that the hypertension is not well controlled. Administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia or elevated blood pressure could potentially exacerbate these issues.

Choice B rationale: Withholding the scheduled dose of labetalol is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The client's heart rate of 48 beats/minute is considered bradycardia, which may be a side effect of labetalol or indicative of an underlying issue. Additionally, the client's blood

pressure is elevated, indicating inadequate control of hypertension. Bradycardia can reduce cardiac output and may lead to further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to obtain further instructions and address the client's bradycardia and hypertension before administering the medication.

Choice C rationale: While telemetry monitoring is appropriate for clients with certain cardiac conditions or when changes in heart rate need close observation, it may not be the most urgent action in this situation. The client's bradycardia and elevated blood pressure are concerning and require immediate attention. Telemetry monitoring may be considered later, but it does not address the immediate need to withhold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

Choice D rationale: Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, such as from lying down to standing up. While orthostatic hypotension is a valid concern for clients taking antihypertensive medications, it is not the primary issue in this scenario. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, indicating bradycardia and the blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, suggesting uncontrolled hypertension. These are the main concerns that require immediate attention and further assessment before administering the labetalol dose.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood and is a severe and potentially life-threatening adverse effect of ibuprofen. Ibuprofen belongs to the class of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and ulcerations.

Hematemesis indicates significant gastrointestinal irritation or bleeding, and it requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider to assess and manage the client's condition.

Choice B rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of ibuprofen and other NSAIDs. While it is important to monitor and address any adverse effects experienced by the client, nausea alone is not as urgent or critical as hematemesis, which can indicate a more severe complication.

Choice C rationale: Insomnia is not directly related to the use of ibuprofen. While sleep disturbances can occur as a side effect of some medications, it is not the most important finding to report to the healthcare provider in this context.

Choice D rationale: Dizziness can be a side effect of ibuprofen, but it is not the most concerning finding in this situation. Hematemesis, which indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, is a more critical symptom that requires immediate attention and reporting to the healthcare provider.

A. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. C. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. E. None F. None

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

choice A, Drawing the peak level two hours after the IV dose is too late to capture the drug's highest serum concentration. Similarly, drawing the trough two hours before the next dose does not reflect the lowest drug level accurately.
Choice B,Drawing the peak level one hour after completion of the IV dose ensures an accurate measurement of the highest serum concentration, as vancomycin typically peaks within this time frame. Drawing the trough one hour before the next dose ensures the lowest concentration of the drug is measured, providing precise therapeutic monitoring.

Choice C is incorrect because drawing blood 30 minutes into the IV dose would not allow the full dose to circulate and reach peak levels in the bloodstream.

Choice D.Drawing the peak level immediately after the completion of the IV dose is too early, as the drug needs time to distribute in the bloodstream and reach its highest concentration. While drawing the trough 30 minutes before the next dose is appropriate, the incorrect timing of the peak makes this option unsuitable.

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The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking ibuprofen. Which finding is most important for the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client is receiving intravenous (IV) vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the drug. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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