The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

Administer the dose and monitor the client's BP regularly.

Withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider.

Apply a telemetry monitor before administering the dose.

Assess for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: Administering the dose of labetalol without further assessment may not be appropriate in this situation. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, which is considered bradycardia (heart rate below the normal range of 60-100 beats/minute). Bradycardia can be a potential adverse effect of labetalol, a beta-blocker. Moreover, the client's blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, indicating that the hypertension is not well controlled. Administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia or elevated blood pressure could potentially exacerbate these issues.

Choice B rationale: Withholding the scheduled dose of labetalol is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The client's heart rate of 48 beats/minute is considered bradycardia, which may be a side effect of labetalol or indicative of an underlying issue. Additionally, the client's blood

pressure is elevated, indicating inadequate control of hypertension. Bradycardia can reduce cardiac output and may lead to further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to obtain further instructions and address the client's bradycardia and hypertension before administering the medication.

Choice C rationale: While telemetry monitoring is appropriate for clients with certain cardiac conditions or when changes in heart rate need close observation, it may not be the most urgent action in this situation. The client's bradycardia and elevated blood pressure are concerning and require immediate attention. Telemetry monitoring may be considered later, but it does not address the immediate need to withhold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

Choice D rationale: Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, such as from lying down to standing up. While orthostatic hypotension is a valid concern for clients taking antihypertensive medications, it is not the primary issue in this scenario. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, indicating bradycardia and the blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, suggesting uncontrolled hypertension. These are the main concerns that require immediate attention and further assessment before administering the labetalol dose.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]

No explanation

A. Instruct the client to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week. B. Ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days. C. Advise the client to stop taking the drug and contact her healthcare provider. D. Obtain a stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat content.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This option is not appropriate as increasing saturated fat intake would exacerbate the oily stool and flatus symptoms caused by orlistat. Orlistat is specifically designed to reduce fat absorption, and increasing fat intake would be counterproductive and may worsen the side effects.

Choice B rationale: Asking a client to describe their dietary intake history is a standard practice in nutritional assessment. It provides a baseline for understanding current eating habits and identifying areas for improvement.

Choice C rationale: Advising a client to stop taking medication should only be done by a qualified healthcare provider who has full knowledge of the client's health history and current medications.

Choice D rationale: While obtaining a stool specimen for evaluation might be relevant in some situations, it is not the priority in this case. The oily stools and flatus are most likely related to the side effects of orlistat and do not typically require stool testing for confirmation. The more immediate action would be to address the symptoms by advising the client to stop taking the medication and contact her healthcare provider for further guidance.

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The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse reviews the lab values. Exhibits What questions can the nurse ask the client based on the lab results? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]

After taking orlistat for one week, a female client tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and flatus. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

Exhibits For each instruction, click to indicate whether the instructions given by the nurse are indicated or contraindicated to prepare for the client's first dose of captopril.

A client receives a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which statement made by client indicates to the nurse the education was effective?

A client with heart failure (HF) develops hyperaldosteronism and spironolactone is prescribed. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking ibuprofen. Which finding is most important for the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

A client with chemotherapy induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to report?

Exhibits The provider would like the client to continue with the captopril dose and restart the spironolactone. The provider wants the client to return to the clinic in 6 weeks with lab work done. What 2 labs would be most appropriate for this client to complete on their return visit?