The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

Administer the dose and monitor the client's BP regularly.

Withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider.

Apply a telemetry monitor before administering the dose.

Assess for orthostatic hypotension before administering the dose.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale: Administering the dose of labetalol without further assessment may not be appropriate in this situation. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, which is considered bradycardia (heart rate below the normal range of 60-100 beats/minute). Bradycardia can be a potential adverse effect of labetalol, a beta-blocker. Moreover, the client's blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, indicating that the hypertension is not well controlled. Administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia or elevated blood pressure could potentially exacerbate these issues.

Choice B rationale: Withholding the scheduled dose of labetalol is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The client's heart rate of 48 beats/minute is considered bradycardia, which may be a side effect of labetalol or indicative of an underlying issue. Additionally, the client's blood

pressure is elevated, indicating inadequate control of hypertension. Bradycardia can reduce cardiac output and may lead to further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to obtain further instructions and address the client's bradycardia and hypertension before administering the medication.

Choice C rationale: While telemetry monitoring is appropriate for clients with certain cardiac conditions or when changes in heart rate need close observation, it may not be the most urgent action in this situation. The client's bradycardia and elevated blood pressure are concerning and require immediate attention. Telemetry monitoring may be considered later, but it does not address the immediate need to withhold the medication and seek guidance from the healthcare provider.

Choice D rationale: Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, such as from lying down to standing up. While orthostatic hypotension is a valid concern for clients taking antihypertensive medications, it is not the primary issue in this scenario. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/minute, indicating bradycardia and the blood pressure is elevated at 150/90 mm Hg, suggesting uncontrolled hypertension. These are the main concerns that require immediate attention and further assessment before administering the labetalol dose.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale: St. John's Wort is an herbal supplement that can interact with various medications, including insulin, and may alter blood glucose levels. It can reduce the effectiveness of insulin, leading to decreased blood glucose control. It is essential for the client to inform the healthcare provider about any use of St. John's Wort to adjust the insulin regimen accordingly.

Choice B rationale: Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels by promoting insulin resistance and inhibiting insulin action. Clients with diabetes may require adjustments in their insulin dosage while taking corticosteroids to prevent hyperglycemia.
Choice C rationale: Fluconazole is an antifungal medication that can affect blood glucose levels. It may increase the hypoglycemic effects of insulin, leading to lower blood glucose levels. The
client's insulin regimen may need to be adjusted while taking fluconazole.
Choice D rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that does not typically have a direct impact on blood glucose levels in people with diabetes.
Choice E rationale: Epinephrine is a hormone that may transiently increase blood glucose levels in response to stress, but it is not a home medication that the client would be taking regularly.
Choice F rationale: Oral contraceptives, specifically combination hormonal contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin, can impact blood glucose levels. They may lead to insulin resistance and, in some cases, increase blood glucose levels. The healthcare provider may need to adjust the insulin dosage for better glycemic control.

A. Low sodium antacid. B. Diphenhydramine. C. Low dose aspirin. D. Acetaminophen.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Heartburn when lying down after dinner can be a symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which is a common concern in individuals with heart failure. Antacids are commonly used to relieve heartburn by neutralizing stomach acid. For patients with heart failure, it is essential to use low sodium antacids because excess sodium intake can worsen fluid retention and lead to increased heart failure symptoms. Low sodium antacids are specifically designed to minimize the sodium content, making them a suitable choice for individuals with heart failure.

Choice B rationale: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine commonly used for allergy relief and as a sleep aid due to its sedative effects. However, it is not an appropriate choice for relieving heartburn. Diphenhydramine does not have any direct effect on stomach acid, and it is not indicated for GERD or heartburn relief.

Choice C rationale: Low dose aspirin is primarily used as an antiplatelet agent to reduce the risk of blood clots and is commonly prescribed for patients with certain cardiovascular conditions. However, it is not a suitable medication for relieving heartburn. In fact, aspirin can irritate the stomach lining and worsen symptoms of heartburn and gastric irritation.

Choice D rationale: Acetaminophen is a common over-the-counter pain reliever and fever reducer. While it is useful for managing pain and fever, it does not have any effect on stomach acid and is not indicated for heartburn relief. Acetaminophen is not an appropriate choice for addressing heartburn symptoms.

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The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exhibits The nurse is preparing the client for discharge and discussing home medications. What home medications may affect the amount of insulin needed by the client? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]

Explanation

A male client with a history of heart failure (HF) complains of heartburn when he lies down after dinner. The home health nurse should encourage the client to talk to the healthcare provider about using which over-the-counter medication to relieve this problem?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD) started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective? Reference Range Hemoglobin (Hgb) [Reference Range: Male: 14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]

The nurse is providing instructions about a client's new medications. How should the nurse explain the purpose of probenecid, a uricosuric drug?

The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking ibuprofen. Which finding is most important for the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Exhibits The nurse notifies the provider that the client is having trouble remembering to take his second dose of captopril. Which ACE inhibitors can be given only once per day? Select all that apply.

A client in the surgical recovery area asks the nurse to bring the largest possible dose of pain medication available. Which action should the nurse implement first?

An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?