The nurse observes a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is excessively drooling and prepares to suction the client's oral cavity.
Which action should the nurse include?
Instill 3 mL of normal saline before suctioning.
Instruct the client to cough as the suction tip is removed.
Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the catheter.
Wear protective goggles while performing the procedure.
Wear protective goggles while performing the procedure.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Instill 3 mL of normal saline before suctioning. This choice is not appropriate for suctioning excessive drooling in a client with ALS. Instilling normal saline would introduce additional fluid into the oral cavity, potentially worsening the problem by increasing the amount of secretions. The goal of suctioning is to remove excess saliva and maintain a clear airway.
Choice B rationale:
Instruct the client to cough as the suction tip is removed. Instructing the client to cough during suctioning is not a recommended practice. It may cause discomfort and can lead to an increased risk of aspiration as the client might inhale while coughing during the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
Apply a water-soluble lubricant to the catheter. Applying a water-soluble lubricant to the suction catheter is a common practice to facilitate the passage of the catheter and minimize irritation to the client's oral tissues. While it is a helpful step, it is not the primary action that should be taken to ensure the safety of the procedure.
Choice D rationale:
Wear protective goggles while performing the procedure. This is the correct choice. When suctioning a client's oral cavity, especially when dealing with excessive drooling or secretions, it is essential for the nurse to wear protective goggles. These goggles protect the nurse's eyes from potential exposure to the client's bodily fluids, reducing the risk of infection transmission.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Reporting the 24-hour intake at the current infusion rate is not the most important finding to report to the healthcare provider in this case. It is essential to monitor intake and output, but a single report of the 24-hour intake is not as critical as other findings.
Choice B rationale:
Reporting a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L (3.1 mmol/L) is the most important finding to report to the healthcare provider. The patient's potassium level is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious cardiac and neuromuscular effects, including arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Prompt intervention, such as potassium supplementation or adjustment of IV fluids, is necessary to address this potentially life-threatening condition.
Choice C rationale:
Reporting a gastric output of 900 mL in the last 24 hours is significant and should be reported to the healthcare provider, but it is not as urgent as the low potassium level. Gastric output should be monitored to assess for signs of improvement or worsening, but hypokalemia takes precedence due to its immediate health risks.
Choice D rationale:
Reporting an increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is important for the overall assessment of the patient's renal function but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. The low potassium level is a more immediate concern and requires immediate attention.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
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