The nurse is testing for motor functioning by having the client lie down and slide the heel of the right foot down the left shin and then slide the heel of the left foot down the right shin. Which response by the patient would indicate that there may be cerebellar dysfunction?
Rapid oscillations of the ankle
Deviation of the heel to one side
Pain and flexion in the knee
The client reports paresthesia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Rapid ankle oscillations might suggest tremor, possibly basal ganglia issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. The heel-shin test assesses coordination, where cerebellar damage causes drift, not rhythmic shaking, making this less indicative of the target pathology here.
Choice B reason: Heel deviation to one side in the heel-shin test signals cerebellar dysfunction, impairing coordination. The cerebellum fine-tunes movement; damage causes ataxia, leading to inaccurate sliding, making this the key sign of cerebellar issues accurately.
Choice C reason: Pain and knee flexion suggest joint or nerve issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. This test evaluates smooth motion, not pain response; cerebellar problems show ataxia, not discomfort, disconnecting this from the intended motor assessment fully.
Choice D reason: Paresthesia (tingling) indicates sensory nerve issues, not cerebellar motor control. The cerebellum coordinates movement, not sensation; this response misses the coordination focus of the heel-shin test, excluding it as a cerebellar sign here entirely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Morphine treats severe pain but isn’t first-line for headaches worsened by coughing, which may signal increased intracranial pressure. Without neurological assessment, this risks masking symptoms of serious conditions like brain tumors, delaying critical diagnosis and intervention.
Choice B reason: Palpating occipital lymph nodes checks for infection or inflammation, but headaches worsened by coughing or sneezing suggest intracranial issues, not lymphatic ones. This action misses the priority of assessing brain function tied to the client’s specific symptom pattern.
Choice C reason: Neurological assessment, like checking reflexes or pupil response, is vital for morning headaches worsening with coughing, hinting at possible intracranial pressure from masses or bleeds. It’s the most direct step to rule out life-threatening causes promptly.
Choice D reason: Explaining migraines assumes a diagnosis without evidence. Morning headaches improving later, worsened by strain, don’t align with typical migraine patterns, risking misdiagnosis of serious conditions like sinus thrombosis, necessitating neurological evaluation over premature reassurance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18, is the primary cervical cancer risk, causing 99% of cases. This STI triggers oncogenic changes in cervical cells, making it the key factor for this class accurately and fully here.
Choice B reason: HIV weakens immunity, raising HPV persistence risk, but isn’t a direct cervical cancer cause. Its role is secondary, amplifying HPV effects, not independently driving carcinogenesis, excluding it as the major factor comprehensively here entirely.
Choice C reason: Syphilis, a bacterial STI, causes sores, not cervical cancer. It lacks the viral oncogenic mechanism of HPV, rendering it irrelevant as a primary risk factor for this malignancy in the educational context fully here.
Choice D reason: Gonorrhea causes inflammation, not cancer. This bacterial STI doesn’t alter cervical DNA like HPV, making it an incorrect choice for a major risk factor in cervical cancer education for these students entirely here fully.
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