The nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about the onset, peak, and duration of a new prescription for glargine insulin. If the insulin is administered at 0800, when is the client most likely to experience hypoglycemia?
Midmorning.
No peak occurs.
Midafternoon.
Shortly after midnight.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Midmorning is not a likely time for experiencing hypoglycemia after administering glargine insulin at 0800, because glargine insulin has a slow onset of action (about 1 hour) and does not have a pronounced peak effect. Glargine insulin is a long-acting insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night.
Choice B reason: No peak occurs is the correct answer for when hypoglycemia is most likely to occur after administering glargine insulin at 0800, because glargine insulin does not have a pronounced peak effect that could cause a sudden drop in blood glucose levels. Glargine insulin is a long-acting insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night.
Choice C reason: Midafternoon is not a likely time for experiencing hypoglycemia after administering glargine insulin at 0800, because glargine insulin has a long duration of action (about 24 hours) and does not have a pronounced peak effect. Glargine insulin is a long-acting insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night.
Choice D reason: Shortly after midnight is not a likely time for experiencing hypoglycemia after administering glargine insulin at 0800, because glargine insulin has a long duration of action (about 24 hours) and does not have a pronounced peak effect. Glargine insulin is a long-acting insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.8"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 0.8 mL.
To find the answer, we can use the following formula:
(mg of medication ordered / mg of medication per mL) = mL to administer
Substituting the values from the question, we get:
(80 mg / 60 mg per 0.6 mL) = 0.8 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of enoxaparin sodium injection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Promoting stomach emptying and preventing gastric reflux is not a relevant action of sevelamer, which is a phosphate binder that lowers serum phosphate levels in patients with CKD. Gastric reflux may be caused by other factors, such as hiatal hernia, obesity, or spicy foods.
Choice B reason: Buffering hydrochloric acid and preventing gastric erosion is not a pertinent action of sevelamer, which does not affect gastric acidity or mucosal integrity. Gastric erosion may be caused by other factors, such as NSAIDs, alcohol, or Helicobacter pylori infection.
Choice C reason: Preventing indigestion associated with ingestion of spicy foods is not a significant action of sevelamer, which does not affect digestion or food tolerance. Indigestion may be caused by other factors, such as overeating, stress, or gallstones.
Choice D reason: Binding with phosphorus in foods and preventing absorption is the correct action of sevelamer, which should be taken with meals to reduce the amount of phosphorus that enters the bloodstream from the diet. High serum phosphate levels can cause bone loss, calcification of soft tissues, and secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with CKD.
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