The nurse is teaching a client about maternal hormones.The woman states that she has been unable to complete a full-term pregnancy.
According to her healthcare provider, she and her husband have been able to achieve fertilization but implantation never takes place.
This is most likely due to a lack of which hormone?

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).

Progesterone.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).

Prolactin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is involved in the maturation of ovarian follicles and the menstrual cycle. While it is crucial for fertility, it is not directly responsible for maintaining pregnancy once implantation occurs.

Choice B rationale

Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy. It prepares the endometrium for implantation and supports the early stages of pregnancy by preventing uterine contractions that could dislodge the embryo.

Choice C rationale

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) supports the corpus luteum in early pregnancy, ensuring the continued production of progesterone and estrogen. However, implantation failure is less likely due to a lack of HCG.

Choice D rationale

Prolactin plays a role in lactation and has some influence on reproductive health, but it is not primarily responsible for implantation. A lack of prolactin is less likely to be the cause of failed implantation. .

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Calling the healthcare provider delays immediate intervention needed to alleviate the client's symptoms of dizziness and nausea due to supine hypotensive syndrome. Quick repositioning is crucial to improve venous return and alleviate the symptoms.

Choice B rationale

Elevating the head of the bed will not relieve the pressure on the inferior vena cava caused by the supine position. This intervention does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.

Choice C rationale

Encouraging deep breathing is unlikely to resolve the symptoms of supine hypotensive syndrome, which is caused by the compression of the vena cava by the gravid uterus when lying supine. This intervention does not address the physiological cause.

Choice D rationale

Turning her to her side relieves the pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving venous return and increasing blood pressure. This is the correct initial action to address the symptoms of supine hypotensive syndrome.

A. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. B. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. C. The client is immune to the rubella virus. D. The client has a mild rubella infection that doesn't require treatment.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A rubella titer of 1: indicates the presence of antibodies against the rubella virus, but this does not confirm the absence of a current infection. The titer represents past exposure or vaccination rather than an active infection.

Choice B rationale

A rubella titer of 1: suggests immunity to the rubella virus, making vaccination unnecessary at this time. Vaccination is typically recommended for those without immunity to prevent future infection.

Choice C rationale

A titer of 1: indicates the presence of antibodies sufficient to confer immunity to the rubella virus. This level is generally considered protective, implying the client has either had the infection before or has been vaccinated.

Choice D rationale

A mild rubella infection would not typically be determined solely by the titer level. Clinical symptoms and further diagnostic tests are required to diagnose an active rubella infection accurately.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing a woman in early labor.While positioning her for a vaginal exam, she complains of dizziness and nausea and appears pale.Her blood pressure has dropped slightly.What is the appropriate initial nursing action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a rubella titer of 1:15. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is providing education to a client during her first prenatal visit.Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching to decrease the risk of preterm labor?

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is completing a skin assessment of a client who is in the third trimester.Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen.Which of the following should the infant receive?

A pregnant client, at 16 weeks' gestation, has a hematocrit of 34%. Her pre-pregnancy hematocrit was 40%. Which of the following statements by the nurse best explains this change?

A male newborn is diagnosed with polycystic kidneys which requires autosomal dominant transmission.One of the parents is believed to have this genetic disease. The nurse's teaching should be based on the fact that with autosomal dominant inheritance:

During the initial visit with the nurse at the fertility clinic, the patient asks what effect cigarette smoking or heavy alcohol intake has on the ability to conceive.What is the nurse's best response?

A nurse is speaking with a client who is 6 weeks' gestation.The client tells the nurse that she smokes one pack per day, but is trying to quit.The nurse should explain that newborns born to women who smoke are at risk for: