The nurse is preparing communication for a provider. The client is experiencing acute pain in the anterior forearm. Distal to the injury, he is experiencing a "pins and needles" sensation. The pulse is weak and the skin is pale. The nurse suspects an emergent condition. What is it?
Pulmonary embolism
Ischial tuberosity
Compartment syndrome
Broken arm syndrome
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Pulmonary embolism is not the correct answer, because it is a condition that affects the lungs, not the arm. Pulmonary embolism is a blockage of one or more arteries in the lungs by a blood clot, which can cause shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing up blood.
Choice B reason: Ischial tuberosity is not the correct answer, because it is a bony projection on the pelvis, not the arm. Ischial tuberosity is the part of the pelvis that supports the weight of the body when sitting, and it can be injured by trauma, overuse, or infection.
Choice C reason: Compartment syndrome is the correct answer, because it is a condition that affects the arm, and it matches the symptoms of the client. Compartment syndrome is a serious complication of a traumatic injury, such as a fracture, that causes increased pressure within a closed space of the body, such as the forearm. This pressure can compromise the blood flow and nerve function of the affected area, causing pain, numbness, weakness, and pale skin.
Choice D reason: Broken arm syndrome is not the correct answer, because it is not a real medical condition. Broken arm syndrome is a madeup term that does not describe any specific diagnosis or treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Higherthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are normal is not a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it does not reflect the effect of the virus on the immune system. CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are types of white blood cells that play a key role in the immune response. CD4+ Tcells are helper cells that activate and coordinate other immune cells, while CD8+ Tcells are cytotoxic cells that kill infected or abnormal cells. Human immunodeficiency virus infects and destroys CD4+ Tcells, which impairs the immune function and increases the risk of opportunistic infections and cancers. CD8+ Tcells are not directly affected by the virus, but they may increase in number as a compensatory mechanism to fight the infection. Therefore, most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will have lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and higher than normal CD8+ Tcells.
Choice B reason: Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are normal is not a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it does not reflect the effect of the virus on the immune system, as explained above. Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are normal may indicate a condition that affects both types of Tcells, such as aplastic anemia, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or immunosuppressive drugs.
Choice C reason: Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and higher than normal CD8+ Tcells is a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it reflects the effect of the virus on the immune system, as explained above. Lowerthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and higher than normal CD8+ Tcells may indicate the progression of the infection and the severity of the immunodeficiency. The normal range of CD4+ Tcells is 500 to 1500 cells per microliter of blood, while the normal range of CD8+ Tcells is 150 to 1000 cells per microliter of blood.
Choice D reason: Higherthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are low is not a laboratory value that most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit, because it does not reflect the effect of the virus on the immune system, as explained above. Higherthannormal number of CD4+ Tcells and CD8+ Tcells are low may indicate a condition that affects CD8+ Tcells, such as leukemia, lymphoma, or corticosteroid therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: An event that can cause serious injury to a client that should never happen in a hospital is not the best description of a sentinel event, because it is too vague and broad. It does not specify the degree of injury or the nature of the event. It also implies that some events that cause serious injury are acceptable in a hospital, which is not true.
Choice B reason: Specific events that enable a hospital to maximize reimbursement is not a description of a sentinel event, but rather a description of quality indicators or performance measures. These are criteria that reflect the quality of care provided by a hospital and affect its payment from payers. They are not related to sentinel events, which are adverse events that require immediate investigation and response.
Choice C reason: An unexpected event involving death or serious physical or psychological injury is the best description of a sentinel event, because it captures the essence and severity of the event. According to the Joint Commission, a sentinel event is "an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof" . Examples of sentinel events include wrongsite surgery, medication error, suicide, or abduction.
Choice D reason: Operating room event involving the use of unsafe equipment is not a description of a sentinel event, but rather an example of a potential sentinel event. It is not a general definition that applies to all sentinel events, but a specific scenario that may or may not result in death or serious injury. It also does not indicate the unexpectedness of the event, which is a key characteristic of a sentinel event.
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