The nurse is performing an ongoing assessment on a client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit at 1655 following abdominal surgery. The nurse documents vital signs every five minutes, as noted in the Vital Signs Record. After reviewing the vital sign trends and notifying the provider, the nurse should anticipate administering what medication?
Midazolam (Versed)
Naloxone (Narcan)
Atropine (Atropen)
Dantrolene (Dantrium)
The correct answer is B.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Midazolam (Versed): This is a benzodiazepine used for sedation. It is not typically used in the post-anesthesia care unit unless there is a need for additional sedation or anxiolysis, which is not indicated based on the scenario.
B. Naloxone (Narcan): This is the correct choice. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. If the vital signs indicate respiratory depression or decreased oxygen saturation potentially due to opioid medications used during surgery, naloxone would be administered.
C. Atropine (Atropen): This medication is used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and is not typically indicated based on vital signs trends without specific symptoms.
D. Dantrolene (Dantrium): This medication is used to treat malignant hyperthermia, a rare but serious condition often triggered by certain anesthetics. It would be indicated if there were signs of this condition, such as a high fever and muscle rigidity, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hypocalcemia: Hypocalcemia can cause signs such as muscle twitching, spasms, or tetany, which could be observed in the upper extremity and might be noted during a blood pressure measurement.
B. Hypokalemia: While hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and cramping, it is less directly associated with specific upper extremity signs compared to hypocalcemia.
C. Hypophosphatemia: This generally affects energy levels and muscle function but is less commonly associated with immediate and visible upper extremity signs.
D. Hyponatremia: This primarily affects fluid balance and mental status, and is less likely to present with specific upper extremity findings during a blood pressure check.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Decrease the TPN rate to 60 ml/hr: Gradually decreasing the TPN rate is a common practice, but it is typically done in conjunction with transitioning to another form of nutrition, not as a standalone order.
B. Replace TPN infusion with an intravenous dextrose solution: This is the correct choice. When weaning off TPN, it is important to prevent hypoglycemia by replacing the TPN with a dextrose solution to maintain blood glucose levels while transitioning to oral or enteral feeding.
C. Begin infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 30 ml/hr: While saline may be used for hydration, it does not address the need to manage blood glucose levels during the transition from TPN.
D. Discontinue TPN infusion: Discontinuing TPN abruptly can lead to complications such as hypoglycemia. It is important to gradually taper off TPN while replacing it with a dextrose solution.
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