The nurse is rounding on a client who is 12 hours postoperative. Upon assessment, the client becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and restless and complains of sudden chest pain. Which postoperative complication should the nurse conclude that the client most likely experienced?

Pulmonary embolism

Pneumonia

Hemorrhage

Myocardial infarction

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Pulmonary embolism: Pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset of chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, which aligns with the client's symptoms. It is a common postoperative complication due to immobility and potential hypercoagulability.
B. Pneumonia: Pneumonia typically develops more gradually and presents with fever, productive cough, and respiratory distress rather than sudden chest pain and hemodynamic instability. It is less likely in the immediate postoperative period.
C. Hemorrhage: Hemorrhage would also cause tachycardia and hypotension, but it would typically present with symptoms such as excessive bleeding, swelling at the surgical site, and pallor rather than chest pain.
D. Myocardial infarction: While myocardial infarction can cause chest pain, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is less likely in this scenario compared to a pulmonary embolism, given the timing and nature of the symptoms in the immediate postoperative period.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Client's serum pH is 7.41: This is within the normal range for blood pH (7.35-7.45) and does not specifically indicate a potassium deficit.
B. Client has a stage 2 sacral wound: This is related to skin integrity and does not directly impact potassium levels.
C. Client requires continuous nasogastric suction: Continuous nasogastric suction can lead to the loss of potassium as it removes gastric contents, which may include electrolytes.
D. Client has a history of adrenal insufficiency: While adrenal insufficiency can affect electrolyte balance, continuous nasogastric suction is a more immediate risk for potassium deficit.

A. Warfarin (Coumadin) B. Gabapentin (Neurontin) C. Xanax (Alprazolam) D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Warfarin (Coumadin): This is the correct choice. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. The surgeon needs to be notified to consider holding the medication and to adjust the surgical plan if necessary.
B. Gabapentin (Neurontin): While important for pain management, it does not significantly impact surgical procedures or bleeding risk.
C. Xanax (Alprazolam): This medication is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, which might be relevant for preoperative anxiety but does not require immediate notification of the surgeon.
D. Atenolol (Tenormin): This beta-blocker is used for hypertension and heart conditions but does not require immediate notification of the surgeon unless there are specific cardiac concerns related to surgery.

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The nurse is rounding on a client who is 12 hours postoperative. Upon assessment, the client becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and restless and complains of sudden chest pain. Which postoperative complication should the nurse conclude that the client most likely experienced?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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