The nurse is performing a comprehensive health history of a client who is in their 50s. The nurse should identify what risk factor that increases risk of complications?
The client breastfed each of their children.
The client gave birth to their first child at age 40.
The client experienced peri-menopausal symptoms starting at age 46.
The client experienced menarche at age 13.
The Correct Answer is B
The nurse should identify the risk factor of the client giving birth to their first child at age 40 as this is associated with an increased risk of certain pregnancy complications and health problems for both the mother and the baby, such as gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, preterm delivery, and chromosomal abnormalities in the baby. Breastfeeding, experiencing peri-menopausal symptoms, and menarche at age 13 are not significant risk factors in this context. However, it is important to note that each of these factors may be relevant to the client's overall health history and should be documented and taken into consideration as appropriate.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common clinical manifestation of ovarian cancer. Ovarian cancer may not cause any noticeable symptoms in its early stages, but as the cancer grows and spreads, symptoms may develop. Pelvic pain or pressure is a common symptom, along with bloating, difficulty eating or feeling full quickly, and urinary urgency or frequency. Other symptoms may include fatigue, indigestion, back pain, constipation, and menstrual irregularities. A fish-like odor (a symptom of bacterial vaginosis) increased abdominal girth,
fever and chills, and leukocytosis are not typically associated with ovarian cancer. However, leukocytosis (an elevated white blood cell count) may be present in response to inflammation or infection. It is important for the nurse to assess the client's symptoms thoroughly and report any concerning findings to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
If a couple has used at-home ovulation testing with basal body temperature and has not conceived, the first treatment option may depend on the underlying cause of infertility. However, the most common first-line treatment for infertility is selective estrogen receptor modulator clomiphene. This medication stimulates ovulation and can increase the chances of conception.
Surgery to reduce endometriosis may be considered if endometriosis is the underlying cause of infertility. However, surgery is not always successful and may not be the first option.
Intrauterine insemination (IUI) with sperm from the husband is another option that may be considered if the male partner has mild to moderate sperm abnormalities or if there is unexplained infertility. IUI involves placing washed sperm directly into the uterus during ovulation.
Assisted reproductive technologies (ART), such as in vitro fertilization (IVF), may be considered if other treatments have been unsuccessful or if there are more severe fertility issues. ART involves combining eggs and sperm outside of the body and transferring the resulting embryo(s) into the uterus.
The choice of treatment will depend on the underlying cause of infertility, the age of the couple, and other factors that may impact fertility. It is important for the couple to consult with a healthcare provider who specializes in fertility treatments to determine the best course of action.
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